I have done not a small amount of research on the subject of slavery before our common era. Despite the fact that there were different degrees of slavery, if ?'degrees' is the proper word, most societies apparently had in place regulations governing humane treatment. I say 'apparently', because in some instances there is very little remaining public record. In the case of the Hebrews, however, we have a document copied and recopied over the centuries with little, if any variation in text and may be fairly certain that what we read is what was written.
OK, so what was written and why? Or why, if the institution of slavery as it applied to ancient Israel would be considered brutal in our day, why would God permit it? Why would he legitimize it in statute? Those who seek an answer must look into the world situation as it existed 3500 years ago: Slavery had existed for centuries. The Jews had been slaves and had owned slaves. Slavery existed in virtually all the surrounding nations. So God saw fit to regulate it in a way that harmonized with his purpose for the Hebrews at that time.
It has oft been posted in this thread that the treatment of Hebrew slaves, particularly chattel slaves was far less humane than that of, let's say, a man who sold himself to pay a debt. Less humane by our standards, yes; but what of the standards of the day? To answer this, I quote none
other than our former, but still esteemed, resident churl, Frank Apisa!!!!!
Frank Apisa wrote:I don't get the chance to mention this often enough -- so let me jump at this opportunity:
The entire of the theological mythology -- or what I personally see as a "theological mythology" was, in my opinion, VERY, VERY enlightened for the people and time.
I think none of us should begrude the ancient Hebrews that.
Fact is, they needed a specific kind of god to protect themselves from the very specific gods of their "enemies" -- and they needed the force of a god to emphasize the need for rules and regulations necessary for an orderly society.
With that said, however, I do not extend those considerations to present day humans who still think this stuff holds water.
But of course, that is just my opinion.
Source:
Frank's amazing post
The question remains, however:
Why did God not do away with it? Or, for that matter, why would God sanction the annihilation of the many city states inhabiting the Promised Land, states that had done nothing overtly to provoke Israel to attack?
Or why has not God put an end to war. Why has he allowed humans to suffer?
I've started a new thread for discussion, so this one may continue to focus on the original issue.
http://able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=2715202#2715202