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Who decides? The state or the individual?

 
 
Renatus5
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:05 pm
I am totally amazed that no one has chosen to comment on the information given by T. Sowell. His argument pins down the Minimum Wage question quite neatly. He shows that Minimum Wage Laws actually do not help people but cause those who need the jobs the most to lose work.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:09 pm
What does Judge Posner have to say on the matter, Renatus?
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MarionT
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:30 pm
Posner? You have to be able to read to understand Posner. You, Setanta, are a fraud who copies sections of old History books to try to show you know about everything. What do you know about Posner? Nothing. Because, of course, you could never understand what he writes. You need at least a normal IQ to do so. And it is clear that you can only write what you copy out of books. Setanta means seventy. That is ten years less than your age, is it not?
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:35 pm
I think the schizophrenia is deepening. My post above was a response to the first post by Renatus at this site. MarionT comes along to heap insult on me for having posted it. In another thread, i respond similarly to Renatus, on an assumption that Renatus and MarionT are one and the same. In that thread, MarionT rushed in to heap insult on me.

I'd say i figured Renatus out in one . . .
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Renatus5
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:41 pm
Is this a gossip forum or a place to discuss ideas? I read the rules posted and do not think you are following them. Personalities are off limits, are they not?
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:43 pm
Do the terms of service state that explicity? Do the terms of service explicitly state that multiple personalities are off limits?
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MarionT
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:44 pm
Forget it. Setanta is a doddering old fool who can't even spell Adolf Hitler correctly, copies from long winded old History books and is clearly unable to respond when challenged. He will, however,like some of the "educated" morons on these sites, rebut with an astonishingly erudite "Jackoff" or, compare your post to Sh*t. Be that as it may, he is an intellectual coward and a poseur.
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jpinMilwaukee
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 12:49 pm
Renatus5 wrote:
Is this a gossip forum or a place to discuss ideas? I read the rules posted and do not think you are following them. Personalities are off limits, are they not?


Would ages and IQs be included in the list of off limit items?

I think you should try to follow your own advice.
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ehBeth
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 02:17 pm
Renatus5 wrote:
I am totally amazed that no one has chosen to comment on the information given by T. Sowell.


BernardR wrote:
The brilliant writer and analyist,Dr. Thomas Sowell,


http://www.able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=2029531#2029531

chime chime chime
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 02:20 pm
Italgato/Massagato/Chiczaria/Mortkat/BernardR/MarionT/Renatus5 is usually fairly easy to spot--but i never thought i'd spot him on the very first post.
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Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 03:05 pm
Setanta wrote:
Italgato/Massagato/Chiczaria/Mortkat/BernardR/MarionT/Renatus5 is usually fairly easy to spot--but i never thought i'd spot him on the very first post.


Good eye, Setanta!
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 03:20 pm
Thanks Miss Law, but it really was a no-brainer. He mentioned Thomas Sowell in his first post, after MarionT had been ranting about it. In the Woman as President thread, he was touting Barak Obama (what that has to do with a woman as President only he knows) on the same page that MarionT was doing the same thing.

He really tipped his hand.
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Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 03:31 pm
Here's to possum tipping his hand:

Renatus5 wrote:
However, the culture of the Ghetto is a culture which must be totally changed in order for Black people to fully engage in the US Economy. The ridiculous emphasis on "victimhood" must go.


http://www.able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=2320656#2320656

Mortkat wrote:
Again, I must point out that the characterists of Blacks in the ghetto are almost directly antagonistic to schooling. The all day school won't help. It is only when Blacks begin to lose the victimology schtick, that they can make progress. African-Americans have succeeded--usually by abandoning the dulling effects of the ghetto mentality....

There is nothing stopping Blacks from changing their culture and emulating those in our society who are successful.


http://www.able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=1703896#1703896
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 04:13 pm
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
joefromchicago wrote:
This is a continuation of another discussion, but I'd like to start by addressing the basic philosophical point first. To do so, let's examine this situation:

Worker is looking for a job and Boss is looking to hire someone. We can assume that Worker, all things considered, would prefer to work for the highest wage and the fewest hours, whereas Boss, all things considered, would prefer to hire someone for the lowest wage and the most hours. Now, suppose also that the state is considering a law that both sets the minimum wage at which an employee may be paid as well as the maximum hours that an employee may work. Without the law in place, however, we can assume that Boss and Worker might negotiate a deal which would fall short of the law's minimum wage limit or exceed the law's maximum hour limit.

In this situation, who should make the decision regarding Worker's wages and hours: Worker and Boss, negotiating between themselves, or the state, through its minimum wage/maximum hour legislation?


The purposes of government are to promote the general welfare and to secure the blessings of liberty.

The word "promote" means to encourage or further; whereas the word "secure" means to guarantee. IMO, the government's goal to promote, encourage, or further the common welfare, as a general matter, cannot trump the government's mandate to guarantee liberty.

Although this is not the "rule of law" as we know it, from a philosophical point of view, I believe there should be a presumption in favor of liberty. Accordingly, the worker and the boss should have the liberty (freedom) to negotiate the terms of employment. I do not believe the government should be allowed to regulate matters of individual liberty unless the presumption in favor of liberty is rebutted by clear and convincing evidence of imminent harm or danger to the public. The governmental regulation should also be narrowly tailored to address the identified imminent harm or danger.
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 17 Oct, 2006 07:10 pm
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
Debra Law wrote:
The purposes of government are to promote the general welfare and to secure the blessings of liberty.

Is that the purpose of every government or just the government of the US?

Debra Law wrote:
Although this is not the "rule of law" as we know it, from a philosophical point of view, I believe there should be a presumption in favor of liberty.

Why?
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Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Oct, 2006 12:55 am
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
joefromchicago wrote:
Well, then I don't know what happens when the state is wrong in that sense. Maybe it apologizes?

No it doesn't, and I didn't suggest that it do. I suggested other forms of pressure.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Let me revise my sentence then: "The government must not force Boss at gunpoint to pay a higher wage to Worker, or to lay him off, or not to hire him in the first place, or to do any choice of those three."

That's a rather broad interpretation of "force," isn't it?

Holding someone at gunpoint is force, and that's not a broad interpretation of the term "force". What the state forces Boss to do by holding him at gunpoint is irrelevant to it being force.

joefromchicago wrote:
Furthermore, just how much "force" is the state permitted to apply? For instance, suppose the state passed a law that required Boss to pay Worker something -- in other words, the law would prohibit an employer from not paying an employee at all. All Boss would need to do in order to comply with the law, then, would be to pay Worker one cent in wages. Is that "forcing" Boss to pay a higher wage to Worker, given that Boss would, in the best of all possible Boss-worlds, prefer to pay Worker nothing? And if that's "force," is that a permissible level of force for the state to exert?

Yes, it is still force, because the amount of violence threatened in case of non-compliance is the same. On the other hand, I doubt employer and worker have a work contract in this case, as there is no consideration on Boss's part. If Boss is unhappy with anything Worker does, contract law does not oblige the state to enforce anything on behalf of Boss.

joefromchicago wrote:
There you go again, assuming that the only good is economic good. As I've mentioned elsewhere, minimum wage laws primarily address a sociopolitical problem, not an economic one. If those laws, therefore, don't satisfy the Rawlsian imperative to better the lives of the worst-off, maybe it's because your notion of "betterment" is too narrow.

I've never heard you quote Ronald Reagan before. Are you feeling alrightl? Anyway, Rawls himself made this point about how the legal rules produced by his social contract would target economic inequality. My copy of Rawls (1971) is in hiding, so I can't back this up with a quote. Failing that, I Googled for "'John Rawls' 'Minimum Wage'". The first hit that came up was a PBS interview between Ben Wattenberg and two philosophy professors about Rawls. Their testimony is consistent with my reading of Rawls and inconsistent with yours.

PBS, transcribing Wattenberg's interview, wrote:
FREEMAN: Rawls thought that people - able-bodied people - should work. He thought that was a condition of self-respect for people. He didn't really favor giving money to people who were able to work. But, of course, along with that he felt that people, if they work, they ought to have a sufficient wage in order to enable them to be self-sufficient individuals. So he supported - he would support wage subsidies. So for people who were worse off and live on a minimum wage, he would support the government coming in and basically increasing...

WATTENBERG: Increasing the minimum wage.

FREEMAN: ... of course we have something like that, really.

WATTENBERG: Do you support that? An increase in minimum wage?

FREEMAN: Yes, I do. Very much so. Yes. Very much so. Five and a quarter is not enough for a person to obtain the necessities of life.

WATTENBERG: What about the argument that's made by conservatives that if you raise the minimum wage you price poor people out of the market? That people who would normally hire you for $5.25, if they've got to pay $7.25 would say the hell with it. That is the argument.

FREEMAN: Exactly. That's true. It is true. The wage subsidies come from government. He thought we ought to get rid of a minimum wage and let the labor market just go as low as it would and let employers just pay two, three dollars an hour if they could and let the government come in and supplement that. So that was the way he would deal with that problem.

WATTENBERG: Through the tax code.

FREEMAN: Through the tax code.

That's exactly what I said: Rawls's philosophy supports the Earned Income Tax Credit, but not the minimum wage. I wasn't sure Rawls the citizen would always agree with Rawls the philosopher, but his philosophy is clear on this point.

Independent of that, I'm curious: Do you seriously believe that if workers get disemployed by minimum wage laws, they receive non-pecuniary benefits as attractive as the pecuniary raise the other workers are getting? I'd like to know what you imagine them to be.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Oct, 2006 08:11 am
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
Thomas wrote:
Holding someone at gunpoint is force, and that's not a broad interpretation of the term "force". What the state forces Boss to do by holding him at gunpoint is irrelevant to it being force.

I don't understand how someone can be "forced" to do anything by a metaphor, but I'm convinced that this point has become so tangential as to merit no further discussion.

Thomas wrote:
Yes, it is still force, because the amount of violence threatened in case of non-compliance is the same. On the other hand, I doubt employer and worker have a work contract in this case, as there is no consideration on Boss's part. If Boss is unhappy with anything Worker does, contract law does not oblige the state to enforce anything on behalf of Boss.

I'm sure a contract of indentured servitude was enforceable by the courts in the eighteenth century.

Thomas wrote:
I've never heard you quote Ronald Reagan before. Are you feeling alrightl?

(1) I don't know what you're talking about, and (2) I feel fine.

Thomas wrote:
Anyway, Rawls himself made this point about how the legal rules produced by his social contract would target economic inequality. My copy of Rawls (1971) is in hiding, so I can't back this up with a quote. Failing that, I Googled for "'John Rawls' 'Minimum Wage'". The first hit that came up was a PBS interview between Ben Wattenberg and two philosophy professors about Rawls. Their testimony is consistent with my reading of Rawls and inconsistent with yours.

I'm not entirely sure why a minimum wage law that obligated employers to pay their employees a certain wage is more objectionable than a general tax that obligated everyone to supplement the employee's wage, but perhaps Rawls, if he had actually participated in that discussion, might have explained the difference.

In any event, there's the possibility that Rawls was wrong. A Rawlsian society would have certain attributes (e.g. democratic government, social welfare programs) that are necessary in any society based upon the foundation of "justice as fairness." On the other hand, the particular forms taken by those attributes (e.g. whether it is a parliamentary or presidential democracy), would be optional. We may call the former "first order" attributes and the latter "second order" attributes. Now, from the interview excerpt you posted (but did not link), it appears that Rawls believed that a "minimum income" constituted a "first order" attribute -- i.e. that a society could not be "just" if its citizens did not have some minimum amount of income. And I think that's a correct interpretation of Rawls. Whether the form of that minimum income is equally a "first order" attribute -- in other words, whether a society can be "just" if it has a minimum wage law as opposed to some other form of wage/income assistance -- is less clear.

If income assistance is a "second order" attribute of a just society, then we cannot say that a minimum wage law that accomplishes the same goal is unjust, because the form taken by a "second order" attribute is not necessary. And if Rawls thought that it was, then he was wrong.

Thomas wrote:
Independent of that, I'm curious: Do you seriously believe that if workers get disemployed by minimum wage laws, they receive non-pecuniary benefits as attractive as the pecuniary raise the other workers are getting? I'd like to know what you imagine them to be.

As I've mentioned before, any society that did not provide some form of assistance to those laborers who were adversely affected by a minimum wage law would be doing them a disservice.

As for the non-pecuniary benefits, it seems clear to me that any kind of income assistance is, at its base, a form of ransom paid by the upper classes to keep the lower classes content and complacent. If large income disparities, unalleviated by any form of wealth redistribution, causes civil unrest, then the non-pecuniary benefits of wealth redistribution, in whatever form (and a minimum wage law is nothing but a form of wealth redistribution), flow to everyone in society, regardless of social class. Bismarck certainly recognized that.

Previously, Thomas wrote:
The permissible use of this violence is constrained (...) according to Locke: He says natural law, in a state of nature, allows Worker to thwart any attempts of Boss to actively kill him. But it allows him no more retaliation than is necessary to protect his "life, health, liberty, and possessions" (Second Treatise, sections 6 and 7). Boss's low-wage job offer does not transgress against any of these. Worker can either take the offer and be better off, or he can leave it and be off the same as before. Either way, Boss does not violate any of Worker's rights. Hence, the law of nature gives Worker no rightful power to retaliate against Boss's low-wage job offer in a state of nature. When Worker leaves the state of nature and subjects himself to a government, he surrenders to it all rightful power of punishment that he had in the state of nature (Section 130). But he cannot surrender to government any righful powers that he didn't previously have (section 135). Summing up, Boss violated none of Worker's natural rights by making him a low-wage job offer; Worker had nothing to rightfully punish Boss for. Because Worker had no such right, he couldn't transfer it to government when he left the state of nature. It follows that under Locke's Natural Law, government cannot rightfully punish Boss for not paying worker a minimum wage.

I said that I'd have to think about this a little while longer, and now I have.

I think that's a fair summation of the Lockean perspective. I'm not about to re-read the Second Treatise to make sure that it is accurate, so I'm willing to accept it, if only for the sake of argument. Of course, that doesn't mean that I accept Locke's argument, but I accept your summary of it.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Oct, 2006 09:40 am
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Holding someone at gunpoint is force, and that's not a broad interpretation of the term "force". What the state forces Boss to do by holding him at gunpoint is irrelevant to it being force.

I don't understand how someone can be "forced" to do anything by a metaphor, but I'm convinced that this point has become so tangential as to merit no further discussion.

I don't understand how it's "a metaphor" that the government has the power to enforce the law at the point of the gun, and that it will use it if Boss defies it. This power seems quite literal to me. Just try and break the law -- any law -- on a continuing basis. You will sooner or later look into the barrel of a police gun, and a literal one at that. I also don't understand how someone can find this point tangential. The monopoly on rightful physical violence is a standard sociological definition of what it means to be a government. It goes at least as far back as to Weber: Politics as a profession (1919). Nevertheless, I agree to drop this point.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Yes, it is still force, because the amount of violence threatened in case of non-compliance is the same. On the other hand, I doubt employer and worker have a work contract in this case, as there is no consideration on Boss's part. If Boss is unhappy with anything Worker does, contract law does not oblige the state to enforce anything on behalf of Boss.

I'm sure a contract of indentured servitude was enforceable by the courts in the eighteenth century.

As it happens, I believe that's an acceptable outcome: such a contract probably ought to be enforceable, although the state may legitimately decide not to enforce it. This is one of those cases where the Hobbesian, the Spencerian, and the Utilitarian in me are inconsistent with one another. But the case for enforcing this contract is sound: there were grown-ups, meetings of minds, and consideration in all stages of the deal. Back in Europe, Worker and Captain contracted that Captain would ship Worker to America. In return, Worker agreed that on arrival in America, Captain could auction him off to the highest bidder as an indentured servant. (Highest bidder has a slightly odd meaning in this case: it refers to the bidder paying for Worker's passage in exchange for the shortest time of indentured servitude. Typical times were about three years.) That's two consenting grown-ups, a meeting of minds, and consideration. Kosher contract. Next: Several weeks later, the ship arrives in America. Boss turns up at the harbor and happens to cast the highest bid for Worker. Boss and Captain shake hands; Worker enters Boss's indentured service; Boss pays Captain for Worker's passage. Again: two consenting grown-ups, a meeting of minds, and consideration. No problem. And three years later, Worker is a free man in America.

I just don't understand what that had to do with my example you were responding to.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
I've never heard you quote Ronald Reagan before. Are you feeling alrightl?

(1) I don't know what you're talking about, and (2) I feel fine.

The line "there you go again" marked highlights in Ronald Reagan's 1980 and 1984 TV debates with Carter and Mondale. Many American conservatives I have met in real life cherish these moments.

Thomas wrote:
I'm not entirely sure why a minimum wage law that obligated employers to pay their employees a certain wage is more objectionable than a general tax that obligated everyone to supplement the employee's wage, but perhaps Rawls, if he had actually participated in that discussion, might have explained the difference.

An econ 101 welfare analysis of the labor market yields that the wage subsidy can raise all workers' wages at the same deadweight loss to society, at the same cost to those who pay the subsidy, but without disemploying workers. That's the advantage from a Rawlsian perspective, and from my perspective as a utilitarian. From my perspective as a Hobbesian, the advantage is that the state uses its legitimate power to tax Boss instead of illigetimately infringing on his freedom to dispose of his property. From my perspective as a Spencerian, the advantage is that the state doesn't infringe on the freedom of contract. From my perspective as a disciple of Hayek, the advantage is that the state doesn't censor the useful information that prices in a free labor market offer.

joefromchicago wrote:
Now, from the interview excerpt you posted (but did not link)

I apologize. Here is the link

joefromchicago wrote:
If large income disparities, unalleviated by any form of wealth redistribution, causes civil unrest, then the non-pecuniary benefits of wealth redistribution, in whatever form (and a minimum wage law is nothing but a form of wealth redistribution), flow to everyone in society, regardless of social class. Bismarck certainly recognized that.

I agree with the general principle, disagree that minimum wages are nothing but wealth redistribution from rich to poor, and emphatically disagree with your appraisal of Bismarck. Are you serious? Let's apply the Rawlsian test: Someone with a time machine offers you the choice between sending you to 1880 Germany or to 1880 England, the most laissez-faire country in the world. You don't know the social position in which you'll arrive there. Would you really choose Bismarck's Germany? I'd opt for England in a nanosecond.

joefromchicago wrote:
Of course, that doesn't mean that I accept Locke's argument, but I accept your summary of it.

Understood.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Oct, 2006 10:37 am
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
Thomas wrote:
The monopoly on rightful physical violence is a standard sociological definition of what it means to be a government. It goes at least as far back as to Weber: Politics as a profession (1919).

I'm perfectly satisfied with this definition. I just don't think that Boss is staring down the barrel of a gun, especially when he always has the option of not hiring Worker at all.

Thomas wrote:
I just don't understand what that had to do with my example you were responding to.

You said: "On the other hand, I doubt employer and worker have a work contract in this case, as there is no consideration on Boss's part." My example of the indentured servant is a contract where there is consideration even if no wage is paid.

Thomas wrote:
The line "there you go again" marked highlights in Ronald Reagan's 1980 and 1984 TV debates with Carter and Mondale. Many American conservatives I have met in real life cherish these moments.

Oh, I use that line all the time. Of course, when I use it, I'm quoting Walter Mondale in the 1984 debate.

Thomas wrote:
An econ 101 welfare analysis of the labor market yields that the wage subsidy can raise all workers' wages at the same deadweight loss to society, at the same cost to those who pay the subsidy, but without disemploying workers. That's the advantage from a Rawlsian perspective, and from my perspective as a utilitarian. From my perspective as a Hobbesian, the advantage is that the state uses its legitimate power to tax Boss instead of illigetimately infringing on his freedom to dispose of his property. From my perspective as a Spencerian, the advantage is that the state doesn't infringe on the freedom of contract. From my perspective as a disciple of Hayek, the advantage is that the state doesn't censor the useful information that prices in a free labor market offer.

As a Lockean, though, I don't see how you can justify any program of wealth redistribution.

Thomas wrote:
I agree with the general principle, disagree that minimum wages are nothing but wealth redistribution from rich to poor, and emphatically disagree with your appraisal of Bismarck. Are you serious?

I didn't say Bismarck was a Rawlsian or that Wilhelmine Germany was a state founded on Rawlsian principals. My point was that Bismarck understood that everyone benefitted from the easing of social tensions brought about by wealth redistribution, even those people whose wealth was confiscated by the state in the form of taxes to pay for that redistribution.

Thomas wrote:
Let's apply the Rawlsian test: Someone with a time machine offers you the choice between sending you to 1880 Germany or to 1880 England, the most laissez-faire country in the world. You don't know the social position in which you'll arrive there. Would you really choose Bismarck's Germany? I'd opt for England in a nanosecond.

That's easy: I would choose neither. Unless, of course, the guy with the time machine held a gun to my head. A literal gun, that is.
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Wed 18 Oct, 2006 01:40 pm
Re: Who decides? The state or the individual?
Debra Law wrote:
The purposes of government are to promote the general welfare and to secure the blessings of liberty.


joefromchicago wrote:
Is that the purpose of every government or just the government of the US?


These are the purposes for which our government in the United States was established.

Debra Law wrote:
Although this is not the "rule of law" as we know it, from a philosophical point of view, I believe there should be a presumption in favor of liberty.


joefromchicago wrote:
Why?


As stated in my previous post:

The word "promote" means to encourage or further; whereas the word "secure" means to guarantee. IMO, the government's goal to promote, encourage, or further the common welfare, as a general matter, cannot trump the government's mandate to guarantee liberty.

Hence, there should be a presumption in favor of liberty.

I do not believe the government should be allowed to regulate matters of individual liberty unless the presumption in favor of liberty is rebutted by clear and convincing evidence of imminent harm or danger to the public. The governmental regulation should also be narrowly tailored to address the identified imminent harm or danger.
0 Replies
 
 

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