neologist wrote:Setanta is probably right that the decision to leave Judea after Gallus' retreat was a no brainer - for anyone but those too proud to think. So you could call the Christian exodus a coincidence.
You could.
Indeed.
You are willfully ignoring the particularism of what you purport to be your evidence.
First, you ignore the point i made, after providing evidence at great length, that people in the ancient world had habitually underestimated the military resources of the Romans for more than 600 years when the Judean rebellion began. In so doing, you ignore that even had your putative Hey-Zeus existed, predicting that the Jews would rebel was a no-brainer, and that it only required a little more intelligence and perception to realize that a rebellion against the Romans without outside intervention would fail.
In the second place, and more to the point about your particularism, you ignore that anyone who displayed enough sense to get the hell out of dodge before Titus showed up and the hammer came down, was showing simply ordinary prudence--
whether we consider them to have been Christians being meaningless in the face of a lack of evidence. To break that down, first, even assuming, just for sake of discussion, that large numbers of "Christians" fled Judea, without good evidence of what proportion they were among all the people who fled Judea, and an ability to relate that to the proportion of "Christians" among the entire population of Judea, you have demonstrated nothing. Second, laying aside unsupported contentions on your part about whether or not "Christians" fled in significant numbers, precisely because you cannot support the contention, the inability to distinguish Jews who were members of that cult and those who were not means that if evidence were discovered in the future about the numbers of people who fled Judea, it will provide no evidence of the extent to which "Christians" reacted to a prophecy. That is why it is significant to note that these people were not known as "Christians," and that no one outside Judaism made a distinction between members of that cult and any other Jews.
In short, you'll never have good evidence from a disinterested source about whether or not there were significant numbers of "Christians" who fled Judea in the first century CE, both because you don't have any baseline data on what proportion of the Jewish population adherents of that cult constituted, and you won't have anyone outside the cult who is going to make a distinction between cult members and all other Jews. What i am pointing out is that you have to take on faith the contention that significant numbers of "Christians" fled Judea just as you have to take all of the rest of it on faith--because you don't have any unambiguous evidence.
Quite apart from that, upon what basis would you assert that before 70 CE, the scriptural texts to which you refer were widely-known, or even existant? Without that, you have absolutely no evidence that such a prophecy were generally known. Finally, of course, you have no basis upon which to refute an accusation that the alleged prophecy were inserted into scripture after the fact.