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Proof of Jesus' Resurrection

 
 
Reply Sat 20 May, 2006 09:29 pm
Is there physical proof that Jesus resurrected from the dead? (Such as an empty tomb?)
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username
 
  1  
Reply Sat 20 May, 2006 09:32 pm
In a word, no.
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rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Sat 20 May, 2006 09:49 pm
Re: Proof of Jesus' Resurrection
annoyed111 wrote:
Is there physical proof that Jesus resurrected from the dead? (Such as an empty tomb?)


No. Of course not. Besides, I don't know about you, but it would take a lot more than an empty tomb to convince me that someone rose from the dead.

If a stranger you met today told you that he saw someone rise from the dead, you would assume he was crazy. Yet when someone tells you he read the exact same story in an old book, millions of people believe it's true.

Why? Because they trust the person who read the book? He wasn't there either.

Because they trust the book itself? It's just a book, and it's not the original, and it's been translated by people who weren't there either.

Because they trust in a higher power which made the book infalable? The book is the thing which proposes the higher power in the first place.

Because they trust their hearts to tell them the truth? Maybe. Maybe it's just as simple as that. No logic, no reason, just a simple gut choice.
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Sat 20 May, 2006 10:39 pm
Re: Proof of Jesus' Resurrection
rosborne979 wrote:
annoyed111 wrote:
Is there physical proof that Jesus resurrected from the dead? (Such as an empty tomb?)


No. Of course not. Besides, I don't know about you, but it would take a lot more than an empty tomb to convince me that someone rose from the dead.

If a stranger you met today told you that he saw someone rise from the dead, you would assume he was crazy. Yet when someone tells you he read the exact same story in an old book, millions of people believe it's true.

Why? Because they trust the person who read the book? He wasn't there either.

Because they trust the book itself? It's just a book, and it's not the original, and it's been translated by people who weren't there either.

Because they trust in a higher power which made the book infalable? The book is the thing which proposes the higher power in the first place.

Because they trust their hearts to tell them the truth? Maybe. Maybe it's just as simple as that. No logic, no reason, just a simple gut choice.


Ros,

Let's say, for the sake of the argument, that you actually did see someone who had risen from the dead. You not only saw him, you ate dinner with him and talked with him.

What 'proof' would you have?
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talk72000
 
  1  
Reply Sat 20 May, 2006 11:36 pm
A novelist could write that and they have 'literary license' to create a fantasy. BTW, in this same book it can be pointed out that Jesus fits the description for Lucifer.
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rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 May, 2006 06:01 am
Re: Proof of Jesus' Resurrection
real life wrote:
Let's say, for the sake of the argument, that you actually did see someone who had risen from the dead. You not only saw him, you ate dinner with him and talked with him.

What 'proof' would you have?


None. So even if I saw it, and I believed it, I wouldn't expect anyone else to believe me.

I would also seek the help of a good psychiatrist. Because as any sane person knows, nobody can rise from the dead.
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Doktor S
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 May, 2006 06:31 am
Re: Proof of Jesus' Resurrection
annoyed111 wrote:
Is there physical proof that Jesus resurrected from the dead? (Such as an empty tomb?)

let's not get ahead of ourselves here. Before we can move on to proof of resurection, we should examine proof of existance, which is yet to be found. (much as proof of hercules is yet to be found)
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timberlandko
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 May, 2006 11:07 am
Not only is there no proof of his having "risen from the dead", there is no independent, external-to-scripture, contemporarilly sourced proof of the existence of the figure central to the myth of Christianity. The only evidence any such person existed is to be found in Christianity's own writings - nowhere else.

This has been covered several times on these boards:

a while back, and not for the 1st time, [url=http://www.able2know.com/forums/viewtopic.php?p=1678270#1678270]timber[/url] wrote:


... Apart from internal reference derived wholly and exclusively from the Abrahamic Mythopaeia itself, what evidence have you for these claims? To my knowledge, no independent, direct historical reference to anything you've mentioned there exists. I submit there is no forensically, academically, scientifically valid evidence for the existence either of the Biblical Jesus nor the Biblical Moses.


Leaving Moses for later discussion, let's examine the actual historicity of the Biblical Jesus. Those who've followed earlier discussions of mine pertaining to this particular point may experience a deja vu moment; indeed I previously have written just about exactly what follows. Feel free to ship over it if you've seen it before Laughing

Those arguing for the historicity of Jesus point frequently to Tacitus: Annals 15:44, which translates, " ... "derived their name and origin from Christ, who, in the reign of Tiberius, had suffered death by the sentence of the Procurator Pontius Pilate". More on Tacitus' reference in a bit, but first, there are a few other nearly contemporary references from other writers cited as historical proof, as well. Apologists for the Historicity of Jesus make much of the little on which they have to draw.

Frequently mentioned in similar vein to the Tacitus "proof" is Josephus' Testimonium Flavianum, from Antiquities of the Jews 18:63-64, which translates, " ... About this time there lived Jesus, a wise man, if indeed one ought to call him a man. For he was one who wrought surprising feats and as a teacher of such people as accept the truth gladly. He won over many Jews and many of the Greeks. He was the Messiah. When Pilate, upon hearing him accused by men of the highest standing amongst us, had condemned him to be crucified, those who had in the first place come to love him did not give up their affection for him. On the third day he appeared to them restored to life, for the prophets of God had prophesied these and countless other marvelous things about him. And the tribe of the Christians, so called after him, has still to this day not disappeared." Frequent mention also is made of Josephus, Antiquities 20:9.1, which translates " ... so he ("he" in the passage referring to one Ananus, eldest son of High Priest Ananus ... timber) assembled the Sanhedrin of judges, and brought before him the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James, and some others and when he had formed an accusation against them, he delivered them to be stoned."

Of the two Josephus references, the second, often termed the "Jamesian Passage" is accorded by historians somewhat more provenance than the first, or Testimonium Flavianum passage, which generally is accepted to be if not a whole later addition, at the very least a later-edited expansion by a 3rd Century transcriber of Christian agenda. However, neither passage is universally accepted as original, at least as currently known, to Josephus' Antiquities. There are questions arising both from contextual positioning - word usage and phrasing - and apparent internal contradictions arising from considering the passages with the overall Antiquities. It is known that Origen, a renowned 3rd Century Christian scholar and a key figure in the early evolution of Christianity, referenced the Testimonium Flavianum. It is known too that the style and word usage of the Testimonium Flavianum, while not particularly characteristic of Josephus' practice, is wholly consistent with Origen's style and usage.

Highlighted here in blue are the phrases which give scholars difficulty: " ... About this time there lived Jesus, a wise man, if indeed one ought to call him a man. For he was one who wrought surprising feats and as a teacher of such people as accept the truth gladly. He won over many Jews and many of the Greeks. He was the Messiah. When Pilate, upon hearing him accused by men of the highest standing amongst us, had condemned him to be crucified, those who had in the first place come to love him did not give up their affection for him. On the third day he appeared to them restored to life, for the prophets of God had prophesied these and countless other marvelous things about him. And the tribe of the Christians, so called after him, has still to this day not disappeared." Particularly of note is the "Messiah" reference; numerous times throughout Antiquities and his other writings, Josephus specifically and unambiguously bestows the title "Messiah" on his own patron, the Emperor Trajan. Perplexing as well is that Josephus wrote much more expansively of John The Baptist and of other zealots and cult figures among the Jews ... writings all devoid of any Jesus, Christ, or Christian reference. A last eyebrow raiser lies in the reverent tone with which Christ is described - not at all fitting either with Josephus' style or general contemporary sentiment.

None of that by itself is damning evidence, but neither is there unambiguous provenance. While it is entirely plausible Josephus wrote of Jesus, it cannot be proven that he did, and there is plentiful credible argument he did not.

Turning to Tacitus, the sole relevant passage in Annals does nothing more than confirm that at the time Tacitus was writing, there was a cult styled as "Christians", the members of which professed a belief that their self-purported central cult figure, "Christ", had died a martyr at the hands of Pilate, "Procurator of Judea" during the reign of Tiberius. That alone raises serious question as to any provenance derived thereby. While the Tacitus text suffers from none of the provenance difficulties afflicting the Josephus examples, in no way is it independent evidence of anything other than that a cult known as Christians had a tradition involving the death of their putative namesake. The key point of difficulty historians have with the oft-cited Tacitus passage is that he terms Pilate "Procurator", whereas the actual office held by Pilate was Prefect - a terminology distinction error very unlike, in fact otherwise unevidenced in, anything else ever written by Tacitus. It is, however, an error echoed in the Gospels, though nowhere else. Too, he refers to Jesus by the Graeco-Christian religious title "Christos", an honorific, as opposed to the almost universally observed contemporary Roman practice of referring to personages other than nobility or signal military accomplishment (which itself generally conveyed nobility) by given names further delineated by patronymics or regional identifiers; Abraham son of Judah, for instance, or Simon of Gaza. One must strongly consider the possibility Tacitus was working not from Roman records in this instance, but rather recounting what he had been told by or heard of Christians.

Other 1st Century writers, Suetonius, Thalus, and Pliny the Younger, also are thought by some to offer independent historical evidence of Jesus.

A passage from Suetonius' Lives of the Caesars, specifically Claudius 5.25.4, translates, "Since the Jews constantly made disturbances at the instigation of Chrestus (the contextual reference is to action taken in 49 CE by Claudius, then Emperor ... timber) expelled them from Rome." Several things stand out here. First, and perhaps least troubling, is that "Chrestus" actually is a common latinization of a known Greek proper name wholly unrelated to the messianic religious title "Christ", or "Christos". Second, there is no reference to "Christians", but rather those being discussed are given the appellation "Jews", and finally, the events described took place in 49 AD, disturbances instigated in Rome by one Chrestus, an individual apparently present both temporally and locationally regarding the disturbances - nearly 2 decades after the accepted date of Jesus' death. The only connection to Jesus or to Christians is the similarity of spelling between the name "Chrestus" and the title or honorific "Christos". Most interesting is that Pliny the Elder, writing much closer to the times in which the incidents reportedly took place, mentions Christians and/or Christ not at all.

With Thalus, we delve even deeper into ambiguity; no first person text survives, and the earliest reference to Thalus describing the crucifixion as having been accompanied by "earthquake and darkness", echoing Gospel accounts, is to be found in the 3rd Century writings of Julius Africanus, a Christian writer and leader. No contemporary record of any such occurrence in or near Judea/Palestine during the 1st Century exists ... a surprising circumstance had there been in fact unexplained mid-day darkness coincident with earthquake. That sorta thing tends to get noticed, and written about, big time. That it might have been left unremarked by any other than the Gospelers and possibly Thalus beggars the imagination.

Turning to Pliny the Younger, his voluminous correspondences with the Emperor Trajan bear frequent mention of Christians in Asia Minor, their beliefs and their practices in context of dissent against and resistance to Roman authority, and amount to discussions of how best to deal with the bother and disturbance fostered by the Christian cult. There is no mention whatsoever of Jesus, and the only reference to "Christ" is to be found in the term "Christians".

In short, history tells us nothing about the historicity of Jesus beyond that there was an offshoot cult of Judaism known as Christians, they had traditions, beliefs and practices, and that Roman Authority thought none too highly of them.
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Sun 21 May, 2006 10:53 pm
timberlandko wrote:
Not only is there no proof of his having "risen from the dead", there is no independent, external-to-scripture, contemporarilly sourced proof of the existence of the figure central to the myth of Christianity. The only evidence any such person existed is to be found in Christianity's own writings - nowhere else.



The writings of John, Peter, James, Matthew, etc are terribly inconvenient for you because they are direct sources from eyewitnesses to the life of Jesus.

The fact that you must claim that they are somehow invalid sources because they are 'included in the New Testament' is laughable.

When they were written there was no New Testament!

They were independently produced, external to scripture (which was the Old Testament) and contemporary with the generation which would have been able to refute the claims if they had been false.

The ridiculous circular reasoning of excluding NT books because they are part of the NT is a new low for you, timber.

I didn't think you could get any zanier, but you showed me.

Still looking for 'other' contemporaries writings about Jesus? They might be few and far between. Perhaps the consequences, including the death penalty for speaking or writing about Him might have had something to do with that.
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timberlandko
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 04:29 am
rl, of greatest inconvenience to your proposition is that independent of it the contemporary writings are not few and far between, they are non-existant - not one letter, not one diary entry, not one official document, nothing - apart from the New Testament references may be found. Now, perhaps that means merely that none have survived, always a possibility. However, given the stunning nature of so many claimed-in-exquisite-detail happenings central to the purported Jesus, that possibility is at best exceedingly remote. Even the references within the New Testament are exclusively past tense, something itself which raises an historiographic red flag. Another is that the writings of Paul predate the Gospels, which themselves are expressed exclusively from the 3rd-party point of view, while further troublingly there are striking linguistic and conceptual parallels among the writings of Paul and all 4 Gospels, particularly the Synoptic Gospels.

Now, it may be there was a man named Jesus, who was among the many known dissident preachers at odds with then-traditional, or conventional, Judaism, a simultaneously ideologic and theologic faith at the time in turmoil, under pressure both internal and external - in my opinion, that's very highly likely. That the Gospels and other canonical and contemporary ex-canonical Christian writings offer an accurate portrait of an actual historic personage, however, is a proposition which cannot be defended other than by reference to and apeal to authority from themselves. I say again, no independent-of-scripture validation of the proposition exists.
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rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 05:40 am
timberlandko wrote:
rl, of greatest inconvenience to your proposition is that independent of it the contemporary writings are not few and far between, they are non-existant - not one letter, not one diary entry, not one official document, nothing - apart from the New Testament references may be found.


Timber, just out of curiosity, how detailed is our general understanding of the events and people of that time period from other, non-bibilical, writings?

Are there lots of non-biblical documents from that time, or are there very few. Are the biblical sources just one document among hundreds, or is it the only one?

Thanks,
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Bella Dea
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:05 am
It's my understanding that the first bibles were not written until 200 or so years after Jesus. And then were written in Hebrew, Aramaic and...another language I can't remember right now. It wasn't umtil much after that the first bible was written in Latin (the native language of the Roman Catholic church). Correct me if I am wrong here.

So....any real stories of Jesus, any accurate ones, would have been oral and probably lost or changed over the years.
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rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:11 am
Bella Dea wrote:
It's my understanding that the first bibles were not written until 200 or so years after Jesus. And then were written in Hebrew, Aramaic and...another language I can't remember right now. It wasn't umtil much after that the first bible was written in Latin (the native language of the Roman Catholic church). Correct me if I am wrong here.

So....any real stories of Jesus, any accurate ones, would have been oral and probably lost or changed over the years.


Putting it in perspective, that's like what each of us heard about things that happened in 1806 (and without printed records).
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:12 am
Your paltry defense of the circular argument you presented --

'The New Testament writings cannot be considered evidentiary because they are New Testament writings.'

is very telling.

Give one bona fide piece of evidence, other than your ridiculous argument from silence, that your wild theory has any validity.

BTW, the Jews, who as a group would have had the most to gain by proving the non-existence of Jesus, and who would have been the closest to the sources and most likely to have been able to show such proof, have rarely tried to make such a case.

Century after century of Jewish scholarship has had that opportunity and the baton has not been picked up.

Their acceptance of the historicity of Jesus makes your position all the more absurd.
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Bella Dea
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:12 am
Shoot, it's like stories from 1985 that we keep telling. They get changed, elaborated, whatever.

Relying on peoples memory is not a good way to preserve history.
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:14 am
The New Testament books were written in the period starting from about 40-50AD and finished before the end of the first century.
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material girl
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:24 am
If he was resurected, what happened to him after that.Are there any other stories?
Why did he come back?

I loved the bit on the end of The Passion of the Christ when he was resurected, I got the distinct impression that Mell Gibson wanted to make a sequel.
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Chai
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:26 am
Book Mark
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rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:27 am
real life wrote:
Give one bona fide piece of evidence, other than your ridiculous argument from silence, that your wild theory has any validity.


Wow RL, you feel free to attack the physical evidence of science and evolution without any credibility of your own, but when we question the validity of written texts produced from second hand stories many years old, you freak out.

We are talking about *written* texts here, right? Doesn't that mean that there is going to be interpretational variation, as well as omission and opportunistic aggrandizement of the texts in question?
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real life
 
  1  
Reply Mon 22 May, 2006 07:49 am
rosborne979 wrote:
real life wrote:
Give one bona fide piece of evidence, other than your ridiculous argument from silence, that your wild theory has any validity.


Wow RL, you feel free to attack the physical evidence of science and evolution without any credibility of your own, but when we question the validity of written texts produced from second hand stories many years old, you freak out.

We are talking about *written* texts here, right? Doesn't that mean that there is going to be interpretational variation, as well as omission and opportunistic aggrandizement of the texts in question?


Hi Ros. Good morning.

Not 'freaking' at all. Just pointing out that timber's argument is circular and completely built on faulty assumptions. I'm assuming you don't want to argue otherwise, since you didn't say so.

Matthew, Peter, John and James were first hand, not second hand, witnesses.

Yes, they are *written* texts. How would you have preferred they transmit their observations to succeeding generations?

And yes, people do interpret them in diverse ways. The US Declaration of Independence is also interpreted in many ways, but you must admit that a rather strange interpretation would be that King George never existed, that he was a fictional character devised to explain the origin of the American nation.

Your mention of 'omission' is an odd one. Exactly how would an 'omission' be proof of anything? Your post this morning omitted your shirt color and your zip code, as well as the weather conditions. Does that mean we should doubt your veracity?
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