joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Joe, get a hold of yourself! All this talk of four-year-olds is making you behave like one. A graph is nothing more than an easy way to track patterns in number changes. Unless you are challenging the numbers, that's a pretty shotty argument.
Explain to me how someone can challenge the numbers but not the graph. A graph is nothing more than a graphical representation of data: in other words, the graph
is the same thing as the numbers, just expressed in a different way.
Precisely my point, Joe. Other than an inconsequential word substitution the numbers and the graph are spot on, contrary to your lazy assumptions to the contrary.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Next time you try reading it; you might notice that its original source is printed on it. In a bit, I'll verify the numbers for you using your source as well as mine.
It's not my job to verify your evidence. That's your job.
Whatever Joe. I've never seen a bibliography at the bottom of your posts either. Usually when someone challenges the veracity of a fact; they provide an alternate source for same. Not only did you not try, you'd have failed if you did. Now that it's been conclusively proven factual, you resort to "it doesn't matter anyway. Am I ever glad I wasted my time proving it for you.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:That's twice now you've contested my points, got boxed in and then boldly denounced it as irrelevant anyway. Interesting rhetorical device, that...
If only saying it so would make it so, then you'd really have a good point there.
One need only look back on our exchange, Joe.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Here again; you are deliberately missing the point which is: X number of executions seems to cause murder rates to drop. Obviously there's no slide rule and a myriad of other variables will no doubt cause fluctuations... even though the totality of the information suggests something drastically changed in the mid to late 60s and didn't correct itself until the late 90s.
This is beginning to sound more and more like the defenders of supply side economics -- "when revenues are high, the government should cut taxes, and when revenues are low, the government should cut taxes." Instead of that, we get: "when murder rates are high, we should kill murderers, and when murder rates are low, we should kill murderers."
Only in Joefromchicagoland; there is nothing unclear about my position, whether one agrees with it or not.
Fact: Capital crime increased dramatically during the absence of capital punishment and decreased just as dramatically upon it's return.
Opinion:These phenomenon are related.
joefromchicago wrote: Your "x number of executions" is a fantasy, much like the optimal point of the Laffer Curve. You don't know what that point is, and your numbers don't provide any evidence for such a point, but you'll still go on advocating the death penalty as if such a number could be established.
I don't know if your obtuseness is deliberate or misunderstanding; but I'll try to clarify it for you one last time:
Opinion:A significant number of annual examples of capital punishment appear to result in a reduction of capital offenses. No slide rule. No lack of recognition of other factors. The big picture considering a totality of the last 75 years data appears to indicate as much.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:If not the drop in execution rates; what?
I have no clue. Unlike you,
O'Bill, I'm not so foolish as to think that a simple correlation constitutes solid evidence of causation, especially for a social phenomenon as complex as murder. Nevertheless, let me lay out some of the problems that could be affecting the numbers:
1. Reporting problems: as we know quite clearly from rape statistics, reported instances of crime do not always reflect the actual rate of crime. Although murder is the kind of crime that is typically reported, jurisdictions may have different standards of reporting, or may just be unwilling to report all the crimes. Jurisdictions that changed their reporting standards, therefore, would show either a sudden increase or decrease in murders, without any corresponding increase or decrease in homicides. The increase in the 1960s, consequently, may be attributable solely to a change in reporting standards.
The FBI standardized the reporting system in 1930. While no system is perfect; murder is a tougher stat than most to fudge, or let go unreported. I find it difficult to impossible to believe reporting has gotten less accurate in the last 20 years.
joefromchicago wrote: 2. Better data collection: as you admit, the pre-1930 statistics are unreliable because there was no uniform method of reporting murders. Better data collection after 1960, therefore, might explain the rise in murder rates without any corresponding increase in actual murders. Now, are the numbers after 1930 reliable? Are they consistent? Without more thorough research, I would have no idea.
While I find it likely that reporting has been steadily improving since the system was installed, a 100% increase is pretty far-fetched. People have been counting, recording and doing arithmetic for a pretty long time. Until there is some evidence to the contrary, I see no reason to doubt the veracity of the FBI's statistics, beyond the exceptions that they freely and forthrightly admit to. In fact, they even have statisticians tracking presumptions on unreported crimes and reflect a 5% increase over the last decade for crime reporting in general, but at the same time pointed out that murder is pretty tough to not report. There is simply to many cross-reference points for the information to be that far off.
joefromchicago wrote: 3. Change in judicial attitudes: it is not clear how a "murder" is defined for the purposes of these statistics. If it is equal to a "murder conviction," then a sudden rise in "murders" could simply reflect a greater willingness on the part of juries/judges to convict defendants of murder rather than of some lesser charge, such as manslaughter. The rise in "murders," therefore, would not represent a rise in homicides, it would just represent a shift in judicial attitudes toward the crime of murder. Indeed, one might even suggest that juries would be more willing to convict someone of murder if they were spared the disagreeable task of deciding whether to execute the defendant, but that would be pure speculation.
Completely false. That is not how the system works. For the purpose of Uniform Crime Reporting there is no difference between murder and homocide and neither a judge nor jury has anything to do with it:
Quote:The Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) Program defines murder and nonnegligent manslaughter as the willful (nonnegligent) killing of one human being by another.
The classification of this offense is based solely on police investigation as opposed to the determination of a court, medical examiner, coroner, jury, or other judicial body. The UCR Program does not include the following situations in this offense classification: deaths caused by negligence, suicide, or accident; justifiable homicides; and attempts to murder or assaults to murder, which are scored as aggravated assaults.
Source
joefromchicago wrote: 4. Changes in socioeconomic factors: I won't even attempt to list all of the possible factors that might affect murder rates. Suffice it to say that violent crime, in general, tracks economic trends. There are also political trends to consider (the 1960s saw the emergence of "law and order" candidates such as Richard Nixon and George Wallace). These are complex situations that need to be analyzed to give a better picture of what was happening.
I concur that there are a myriad of factors that most certainly effect the murder rates. I've brainstormed and read plenty but can come up with no single or even set of factors that could have had such a dramatic effect as to create that giant bubble... Other than the DP theory and
possibly Freeduck's thought that it could be drug-related.
joefromchicago wrote: A competent statistician would want to do some regression analyses in order to eliminate possible confounding factors and alternate explanations. I don't know enough about the data to offer even a vague guess as to all the possible alternate explanations that might be behind the numbers in your graph, O'Bill, but then that puts me in the exact same position that you occupy. The only difference is that I won't make ill-informed, irresponsible guesses on the basis of limited information.
Sure you will
Joe, and have. I haven't been arguing with myself here. The fact that you're now backpedaling to Thomas's position is surely the best solution, since your attempts to disprove the veracity of my stats/graph have proven futile, and your inability or unwillingness to supply an alternative theory to explain the enormous bubble they illustrate does nothing to disprove my theory. May I point out that considering the myriad of factors that you consider possible explanations (both those you realize and those you don't) that denying the possibility that the DP theory is one of them is just plain ignorant. If you don't know, and don't feel qualified to even opine; how can you be so obstinate in your refusal to accept the imminently reasonable possible explanation that the DP is the cause? The fact that correlation doesn't prove causation is certainly no reason to ignore it. What fool wouldn't look at correlation while trying to determine causation? The problem with your belated alliance with Thomas's position is your utter lack of open-mindedness. Steadfastly denying the obvious correlation
could reflect causation;
does put you in the "exact same position I occupy". The difference isn't that I'm more willing to opine without proof; the difference lies in the fact that the evidence supplied thus far leans more towards confirming my theory, not your incessant, unsupported denial of same.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote: Here we see another insightful attempt to obfuscate the obvious. The point that evidence was refuting was your erroneous suggestion that the relatively tight correlation in the pre 60s era didn't repeat when the death penalty resumed. The annual fluctuations you attempted to change the focus to, look no different than they did in the pre 60s era. Please stop misrepresenting my argument in feeble attempts to avoid admitting your errors.
There was no misrepresentation: your argument is what it is. You have taken two sets of numbers and have intuited a causal connection between the two. I, on the other hand, see no reason to make that logical leap.
Nonsense. The point we were both addressing is still there for all to see. I see no need to clog the board by re-quoting you every time you backpedal. That strategy is as futile as it is tedious to correct.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Again Joe: We can conclude that after the enormous spike in murder rates that coincidentally(?) occurred during the near-nonexistent to nonexistent DP period; the pattern of execution/murder rates being relatively consistent reappears. While the explanation for this phenomenon my be questionable; the phenomenon is not.
And how right you are to put a question mark after "coincidentally," since it may very well be nothing more than a coincidence. And if it is a coincidence, then the phenomenon, no matter how real or apparent it is, is not worth investigating.
This supposition is absurd on its face. What competent statistician wouldn't investigate a correlation-phenomenon based on the fact that it could prove coincidence? (Perhaps one with a predisposition so strong he's able to ignore the obvious?)
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Maybe you need to collect the data and build your own to prove to yourself that it matters little who builds a graph, as long as the numbers are accurate... or, of course, you could just concede the obvious...
I need no graphs. My argument does not rest on graphs. Yours does. You should, therefore, take the trouble to learn more about them.
"Joe sez" is a sorry substitution for facts, graphs and figures. I'm growing tired of this idiotic taunt, too, Joe. The graph is real. The numbers are accurate. And, I would have guessed that the lawyer accusing the layman of ignorance would have known better than question its veracity without at least some reason for believing it wasn't. That you didn't even know there's no difference between Homicide and Murder for the purpose of Unified Crime Reporting astounds me. Cleary it is you, not I, that has been lazy in his approach to researching the subject. The accurate graph still reflects the truth, my reading of it has been spot on and my opinions about what it reflect remain
reasonable. Not so, your irrational, unsubstantiated denial of same.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:You attacked my position, got boxed in and then you abandoned your feeble attack by claiming it irrelevant anyway. Funny, you didn't start that way if that's how you feel.
Show me exactly where I "attacked" your position with regard to recidivism rates?
Here. (You'll also notice at the top of that page; by then I was already being forced to outline your backpedaling.
Tedious strategy, that.)
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Funny you just can't seem to grasp the obvious fact that your solution is part of the problem; sentencing laws could be changed to keep lifers in for life. They could also be changed to grant lifers parole. This shouldn't take to much imagination since both have already occurred.
If we can't figure out ways to keep convicted murderers in jail, then that's a failure of political will or imagination, for which the death penalty is not the solution.
<shakes head> The writing is on the wall. We have figured out ways to keep convicted murderers in jail. We've also figured out ways to release them anyway. The DP, too, is a reflection of political will and remains the only proven way to prevent recidivism.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:I can ill imagine a more childish response and am very surprised to see you author it. Again, unless you dispute the accuracy of the numbers in the graph; attacking the graph itself is ridiculous.
The graph and the numbers are THE SAME THING. Geez, for somebody who uses lots of graphs, you really don't understand them very well.
So here we see you again dispute the veracity of the graph, and this time the numbers it reflects as well, both to the detriment of your credibility. Again, both were and are accurate.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Funny how you were perfectly willing to refer to it before you figured out you couldn't pretend it suggested something other than what I supposed. Why are you so afraid to address the enormous bubble, Joe? Can't come up with a plausible alternative theory for obvious discrepancy?
At no point did I think you could but I remain interested in seeing you try. :wink:
Show me where I referred to the graph to support
my argument.
Almost half of our exchange has been your counter-argument to my argument, since you've scarcely much else. Again, a counter argument isn't an argument? Moreover, you did refer to it more than once while suggesting it reflected something other than my theory. Go back and look for yourself.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:I don't remember precisely where I copied that graph from, but it matters not. That's the weakest argument I've seen you forward. I don't know how to lift a graph from a PDF file and save it as a picture to post on line, but (:wink:), a little more than half way down
this page you can view a graph depicting murder rates from 1900 to 1991
at the U.S. department of Justice's website. I do hope you find that source acceptable. You will notice that the peaks and valleys between 1930 and 1991 match those of the other graph I provided exactly. Also please note that the time span before 1930 shouldn't be relied upon because that's when the FBI started collecting all the Data.
<snip>
Look a little more than half way down
This Page.
That's a graph that represents the
homicide rate. To refresh your recollection, here's
your graph:
It purports to depict the
murder rate. Are you claiming that all homicides are murders?
No Joe. As explained above there is no definitional difference between murder and homicide for the purpose of the Uniform Crime Reporting.
joefromchicago wrote: OCCOM BILL wrote:Now that we know (
) the graph is authentic;
We know no such thing. Unless "murders" in the first graph are identical to "homicides" in the second, they are not comparable.
Wrong again, Joe.
We do know, even if
you are stuck in denial.
joefromchicago wrote:OCCOM BILL wrote:...I'll resume waiting for your explanation
if you can muster one.
Let me explain this as simply as possible: I don't have to offer an alternate explanation to
your evidence, especially if you can't even offer a plausible explanation of it. I repeat: it's not my evidence. I don't rely on it, so I don't have to support it or refute it. And just because I don't offer an alternate explanation doesn't mean that yours is the only one possible explanation left. I won't offer an alternate explanation because I don't know enough to offer one. Your eagerness to engage in baseless speculation is no reason why I have to do the same.
There is nothing wrong with my evidence, other than the fact that it appears to support my theory and that troubles you.
Btw, I've since verified the authenticity of the graph/numbers
here.
Click on the graph to see the numbers behind it! (pretty cool trick, eh?)
I also discovered a link between the execution numbers I listed last and discovered there is indeed a handy graph provided (so no need to repeat my excel experiment
). It can be viewed
here .
Click on it to see the numbers behind it.
Do note that both graphs reflect the exact same peaks and valleys as the one I originally provided. Case closed.
So much for the 4-year old with crayons nonsense. I'm guessing you've already verified this and that would explain your shift from "it's unreliable" to its "irrelevant". Your backpedaling is well shielded by the thrust of your argument, but is nonetheless easily recognized in a re-read of our exchange.
I don't know how you reconcile your counter-arguments of veracity with claims that the evidence you question has nothing to do with your argument. Are counter-arguments not arguments? At this juncture; you've back pedaled all the way from contesting my every argument to Thomas's position of inconclusive data to make a judgment. Read back and you'll see I conceded that as reasonable, pages ago, with very little argument. You'll also see I predicted the futility of debating the bubble-rationale in recognition of Thomas's expertise and opinion that it would ultimately be deemed inconclusive. Now I've wasted hours proving the veracity of a trend in the face of your challenges, only to have you deem said veracity irrelevant.
This is not unlike proving that the State kills less people than recidivism, in the face of your sarcasm, only to have you claim that too is irrelevant upon the evidence being provided. You have a habit of making challenges to other's positions without offering converse opinions, and then dismissing the challenge as irrelevant when it's proven fruitless, sometimes even to the point of denying you made it in the first place. This is tedious and I'm tired of it. I again suggest we agree to disagree.
Hope there's no hard feelings. I'd like to buy you a drink when I'm Billinchicago. (Providing we don't have to discuss this over it. :wink: )