flushd wrote:How can language and logic be prior to meaning?
This is not my own; rather, I picked it up (I believe by twyvel) and placed it as a quote to entertain various responses to the question. WIthout doubt, you must agree the question is interesting.
I suppose, at this moment, that even a demonstrative definition requires the use of language and informal logic to a slight degree; the father, by pointing to a red ball and saying "ball," is, in essence, providing a meaning to the bright object in front of the child through the use of a 'term' and by pointing at the object, which, in effect, is in itself an inference. But the child is not familar with the term 'ball', and, in fact, has no prior knoweldge of the object that is pointed out- the child barely can pronounce 'ball', though the association remains. Furthermore, the association made from the object to the term does not require strict logic, in the sense of deductive logic and so on; that which is pointed to is given a name, and that name, via association, is carried over to all objects that resemble the first. So then, here, we have a child completely unaware of the language in use by her father, and the association is completed, to be sure, through a line of reasoning, albeit a willy-nilly one. Therefore, which is given priority?