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Past, Present and Future - do they exist?

 
 
quex144
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 Nov, 2005 09:02 pm
fresco wrote:
T*E C*T example is taken from a celebrated problem in pattern perception where * stands for a potentially ambiguous symbol between "A" and "H"
The point is that in dynamic context as opposed static mathematics there is NO ambiguity. The observer resolves set membership by reference to
the "word" level as opposed to the "letter" level. (Computer recognition devices find this difficult).

The implication is that static sets of properties which define "things" may be mathematical significant for binary logic, but in the real world of semantics binary logic may be a subsidiary process. Piaget pointed out that "logic" is a late development in the maturation process, hence the acquisition of meaning cannot point to logic or mathematical set theory as a necessary component.


I have not come across this example before- very intriguing. Though I am not familiar with Piaget's work, and this conclusion is impressive.

Is it the case that because of logic as a late development in the maturation process both logic and set theory are not necessary elements in the acquisition of meaning? Is this Piaget's inference?

Once more, you have piqued my interest Fresco. Cheers. :wink:
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 Nov, 2005 09:06 pm
Quote:
I think meaning is prior to logic and language, which are an attempt to convey the transcendent nature of meaning.

Meaning is not inherent in things, thoughts, events, language or logic.


And this cuts across my thoughts on Piaget's conclusion of the acquisition of meaning: if, for the moment, we assume logic and language as prior to all meaning, then what is to follow meaning in this progression? Moreover, what is that which is contributed by logic and language?
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flushd
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 Nov, 2005 09:12 pm
Thank you, twyvel.

You managed to say what I was thinking.
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flushd
 
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Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 12:48 am
quex,

How can language and logic be prior to meaning?
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fresco
 
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Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 01:15 am
quex + flushd

My position above starts with the proposition by Piaget and later Capra that "action" is prior to everything. (My other philosophical leaning is towards Wittgenstein "meaning is use".) Language is acquired as "a speech act" which co-ordinates other actions. Later language is internalised as a system for "thought acts". Piaget in fact has little to say about language per se, but Capra expands the views of Bateson et al who develop Piagets position towards the Santiago Theory of Cognition in which "cognition" is merely "another term for the general life process" . All then leans on a definition of "life" which is perhaps even further beyond the scope of this thread. If interested see below,

http://www.tcd.ie/Physics/Schrodinger/Lecture3.html
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 04:39 pm
I don't know where or how to jump into this very interesting thread. Let me just suggest that the difference between words and deeds breaks down with the notion of speech ACTS (and thought acts for that matter). Language and Logic, on the other hand, are "systems" for the organization of meanings. If we take language to mean just collections of words, then language and meaning(s) are one. But if we look at the principles of logic and punctuations, we have a kind of meta-system of meanings, i.e., the "rules" which function as meaningful prescriptions and proscriptions for action.
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twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 04:39 pm
quex144 wrote:

Quote:
: if, for the moment, we assume logic and language as prior to all meaning, then what is to follow meaning in this progression?


Understanding?

I don't think logic/language could develop or evolve without the rudimentary drive of desire and need as (or in form of) unarticulated meaning.

Quote:
Moreover, what is that which is contributed by logic and language?




Reflectivity, and everything that followsÂ…. (including thought as self language.)

Language creates a house of mirrors, some would call hell.
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 05:13 pm
flushd wrote:
How can language and logic be prior to meaning?


This is not my own; rather, I picked it up (I believe by twyvel) and placed it as a quote to entertain various responses to the question. WIthout doubt, you must agree the question is interesting.

I suppose, at this moment, that even a demonstrative definition requires the use of language and informal logic to a slight degree; the father, by pointing to a red ball and saying "ball," is, in essence, providing a meaning to the bright object in front of the child through the use of a 'term' and by pointing at the object, which, in effect, is in itself an inference. But the child is not familar with the term 'ball', and, in fact, has no prior knoweldge of the object that is pointed out- the child barely can pronounce 'ball', though the association remains. Furthermore, the association made from the object to the term does not require strict logic, in the sense of deductive logic and so on; that which is pointed to is given a name, and that name, via association, is carried over to all objects that resemble the first. So then, here, we have a child completely unaware of the language in use by her father, and the association is completed, to be sure, through a line of reasoning, albeit a willy-nilly one. Therefore, which is given priority?
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 05:21 pm
fresco wrote:
My position above starts with the proposition by Piaget and later Capra that "action" is prior to everything. (My other philosophical leaning is towards Wittgenstein "meaning is use".) Language is acquired as "a speech act" which co-ordinates other actions. Later language is internalised as a system for "thought acts". Piaget in fact has little to say about language per se, but Capra expands the views of Bateson et al who develop Piagets position towards the Santiago Theory of Cognition in which "cognition" is merely "another term for the general life process" . All then leans on a definition of "life" which is perhaps even further beyond the scope of this thread.


A tad beyond the scope, but not by much, as we have gathered.

Do you know, I once had a prof that furiously told me "...what ontology? There are objects and there are states of affairs- that is it!" Shocked So, the moment I was handed my hat from the department (I was only an adjunct), my attacks ensued without mercy. The audacity!! To skip over the Tractatus and spend the remainder of the term on the Investigations? To note that the Tractatus is not ontological? And this from a prof that specializes in Wittgenstein? Ha!
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 05:29 pm
This question,

Quote:
If, for the moment, we assume logic and language as prior to all meaning, then what is to follow meaning in this progression?


is my own, from twyvel's opinion on language and logic on page eight; and, if I may, I find the question applicable to his opinion- as an extension that is.

This question,

Quote:
Moreover, what is that which is contributed by logic and language?


once more, is the extension of the statement on page eight.

twyvel wrote:
Understanding?

I don't think logic/language could develop or evolve without the rudimentary drive of desire and need as (or in form of) unarticulated meaning.


Please amplify.
0 Replies
 
quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 05:45 pm
JLNobody wrote:
I don't know where or how to jump into this very interesting thread. Let me just suggest that the difference between words and deeds breaks down with the notion of speech ACTS (and thought acts for that matter). Language and Logic, on the other hand, are "systems" for the organization of meanings. If we take language to mean just collections of words, then language and meaning(s) are one. But if we look at the principles of logic and punctuations, we have a kind of meta-system of meanings, i.e., the "rules" which function as meaningful prescriptions and proscriptions for action.


With your permission, I would say that logic proper (derived from a language, to be sure), is indeed a system, and this system, as a matter of fact, organizes meanings within arguments through the organization of the particular lines of reasoning in use; but this is neither its aim nor its defining characteristic. Philosophy, without a doubt, deals with definitions of all sorts; logic, as that science (indeed, in the strict sense) which "organizes" inferences and draws on inferences to generate its own rules of inference, is a system of evaluation- the evaluation to fall on inferences of all types. Explication and evaluation may dance the same dance, but not so in each ballroom.
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 05:49 pm
JLNobody wrote:

Quote:
Language and Logic, on the other hand, are "systems" for the organization of meanings.


Good way of putting it.

Can meaning be organized?

Quote:
If we take language to mean just collections of words, then language and meaning(s) are one. But if we look at the principles of logic and punctuations, we have a kind of meta-system of meanings, i.e., the "rules" which function as meaningful prescriptions and proscriptions for action.



Is logic/language a specific set of principles and rules or the understanding of those rules?
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 06:17 pm
In my above phrase ("...if we look at the principles of logic and punctuations, we have a kind of meta-system of meanings, i.e., the "rules" which function as meaningful prescriptions and proscriptions for action."), I meant to say "principles of logic and GRAMMAR). Grammar is, for better or for worse, clearly a form of linguistic logic. The subject-object set is clearly one of our most lasting imperatives for thought (underlying Descartes' dualism of mind and other).
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 06:40 pm
Quote:
Is logic/language a specific set of principles and rules or the understanding of those rules?


The science of logic both derives its own principles and utilizes them to derive any thing of any sort. Its propagation is brought on by the utility of its own construction. To extract that which is important to the science, a certain understanding is called on, and so the principles (and meta-principles) of logic are utilized by the understanding to its own development, as well as to its own construction. A set of principles? Yes. Understanding? Yes.

Once, at SJU in New York, I was introduced to a professor of philosophy that maintained mathematical logic was unnecessary. Shocked
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 06:44 pm
JLNobody wrote:
In my above phrase ("...if we look at the principles of logic and punctuations, we have a kind of meta-system of meanings, i.e., the "rules" which function as meaningful prescriptions and proscriptions for action."), I meant to say "principles of logic and GRAMMAR). Grammar is, for better or for worse, clearly a form of linguistic logic. The subject-object set is clearly one of our most lasting imperatives for thought (underlying Descartes' dualism of mind and other).


I would add, if I may, that the subject-object "set" is clearly one of our most lasting imperatives in ontological thought.

If this was your intent JL, strike the above addition.
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 07:32 pm
It WAS my intent, quex, but I'm glad you underscored it. We have a very deep-seated assumption that every deed requires a do-er, and this might even underlie our assumption that every event is an effect of a CAUSE (doer).
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quex144
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Nov, 2005 07:57 pm
JLNobody wrote:
It WAS my intent, quex, but I'm glad you underscored it. We have a very deep-seated assumption that every deed requires a do-er, and this might even underlie our assumption that every event is an effect of a CAUSE (doer).


Well put, though my intention was not to underscore the statement. In any case, we are on the same page as it were.

I am glad that good philosophers are not extinct. :wink:
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flushd
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Dec, 2005 12:32 am
Did not Plato introduce a lot of dualism into thought? Am I way off track here? Descartes came after, correct?!

I don't have secondary schooling, so I appreciate anyone who bears with me in attempting to keep up with this thread.

It is difficult to speak in English without subject/object! Actually, I've been thinking a lot about this lately. English is a weird language. Surprised
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twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Dec, 2005 01:14 am
Quote:
quex144 wrote:

Is logic/language a specific set of principles and rules or the understanding of those rules?
Quote:
The science of logic both derives its own principles and utilizes them to derive any thing of any sort. Its propagation is brought on by the utility of its own construction. To extract that which is important to the science, a certain understanding is called on, and so the principles (and meta-principles) of logic are utilized by the understanding to its own development, as well as to its own construction. A set of principles? Yes. Understanding? Yes.


Yes, well worded, and you are probably right.

In as much as the phenomenal and mental world are void of meaning so are principles, sets, rules and these words etc. As I see it, logic is all in/as understanding. There is no subject-object dichotomy. There's nothing understood and no one understanding. There is just understanding. Singularity.There's no boundary to demarcate a system or set of principles from an understanding of the them, whatever that understanding may be.
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twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Dec, 2005 01:22 am
Yes flushd, all language is dualistic, which aids the difficulty of seeing through the veil.
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