If somebody wants an experiment for chapter one, piggy suggests he moves a glass and watches it carefully and see whether the glass has wave – particle duality or not.
Reference material:
Pig Head Award 2024 No. 8 position.
To Mr. Ding’s physics test: why seems a glass has no wave particle duality?
(Sorry guys, piggy can’t find out where’s the essay mentioned Ding’s physics test. Ding is a professor in MIT.)
Piggy’s additional comment here:
Piggy read an essay about a physics test once upon a time in a scientific site. For reference:
A professor asked his student a question: why seems a glass has no wave – particle duality? The student answered: its probability wave length is too small and not easy to observe. (Note: the Plank constant h is very small value, the momentum of the glass p is relatively very big, according to the equation λ = h / p, λ should be a very small value.)
The professor kept silent. Perhaps he was thinking why the train would not jump on the trails before stop?
Perhaps the student’s answer was a “standard” one. But the professor seems unsatisfied with it.
Piggy’s analysis:
Such visibility of the effect of probability should not concern the magnitude of wave length or amplitude, because it’s not mechanic wave.
The glass could be considered as a big neutral particle / free particle. The amplitude of its wave function is a constant A. Probability density | A |² is a constant. That means the chance of its presence in the whole space is the same. It’s obviously not inconformity with fact.
Some guys resort to the idea of microscopic – macroscopic to explain the wave – particle duality problem of a glass. They say QM is applicable to microscopic particle, while Relativity is applicable to macroscopic object.
There is a question: anyone can find out the border between the microscopic vs the macroscopic? Perhaps they would have to spend thousands of years to do it…at last get nothing.
The funny thing is actually SR can reflect the movement of fundamental particles in an accelerator very accurately, while QM can’t do that.
The idea of microscopic – macroscopic seems a man’s perception only. It’s research “started from the wrong burst point, then traveled in a long and complicated curve, at last trapped in a blind alley.”
Moreover, why we can’t pursue a unified rule of cosmos?
Or people can have a third way of thinking. Why we can’t suspect whether wave – particle duality always established or not? Originally, the concept of wave – particle duality was a speculation / assumption only. According to some statement, once upon a time, when people knew released photon is “wavicle”, Duc de Broglie initiated a genius – class ASSUMPTION “all microscopic particles should be wavicle”. Then, the conception of “matter wave” / probability wave appeared on the stage of physics. In philosophy it equals to “the father pig is a good swimmer, then, the little piggy should be a good swimmer too”. Gangster’s logic. Oh Lord, please don’t throw the little piggy into water to do experiment…People mistake some theories as truth, just because they kept hearing them.
If people resort to the third way of thinking, the answer is there.
In 2023, delved into the level of meta physics, piggy found that wave – particle duality is not always established.
For details please see Analysis of the Speed of Probability Wave (the first chapter of piggy’s new article Research on the Root of Quantum Mechanics).
I don’t know how to display the full context here because I am not able to use the software to show some mathematical calculation. What I can do is to show its abstract.
The beginning of the context is:
According to Duc de Broglie’s original idea, the frequency of probability wave γ = E / h, the wavelength of probability wave λ = h / p.
The speed of probability wave of a free particle could be calculated as below:
If v is the moving speed of the particle, then, the speed of the corresponding probability wave:
u = γλ = (E / h)( h / p) = E / p =…
The conclusion of the context is:
When v → 0, Lim u = 0,
When v → c, Lim u = c,
When 0 < v < c, v > u
There are two hard problems as below:
1. What does the inconformity between “v” and “u” in case of 0 < v < c mean exactly in physics? It represents the wave state separating from the particle state? How lame it all sound. It’s too abstract and not understandable. It just means the concept of wavicle (wave – particle duality) in QM can’t establish in this situation. Why?
Seems there is a flaw here in QM.
2. And what does the conformity between “v” and “u” in case of “v → c, Lim u = c” mean exactly in physics? It should mean the concept of wavicle established in this situation. Why?
Piggy has given up the conception of probability wave and initiated the new conception of “electric wave”. QM should be the science to research the wave characteristics of electric interaction, or say, wave function should be to describe “electric wave”.
Anyone can accelerate the glass to the speed of light c?
According to Analysis of the Speed of Probability Wave, in case of 0 < v < c, the concept of wavicle (wave – particle duality) in QM can’t establish. Wave function should be to describe “electric wave”.
Next, piggy analyzes it from the angle of PRESENCE – PROPERTY fundamental natural system:
In “The Chen’s Physics Model of Subatomic Particles”, such elementary particles as electron and proton are spherical electromagnetic wave. “Inward Hydrogen Atom Model of Neutron” show that such synthetic particle as neutron is made up of spherical electromagnetic wave too. As a whole, spherical electromagnetic wave doesn’t demonstrate wave characteristic.
The answer is very explicit, simple and understandable.
The wonderful thing is the rule of movement of spherical electromagnetic wave is just 0 < v < c.
Liqiang Chen
陈力强
July 29, 2024
https://able2know.org/topic/586167-1#post-7374596