Mills75 wrote:When the United Nations decided to give a disproportionately large chunk of the region called Palestine to the Jews (who were predominantly European), there was no treaty with the people of that region and the Palestinians were not the losers of a war at the time the UN gave their land away. Does the fact that the U.N. has parceled out other people's land to foreigners make this right?
I was trying to be specific in terms of how land was parceled out and re-arranged without going into the details of each country and region.
If you are disputing the idea and need specific information as to how land and populations were parceled out and re-arranged; with
or without treaties; with
or without wars; by the United Nations or other foreign powers, during the twentieth century in the Middle East; Africa; Europe; and Asia - I will provide details. It is, however, an extremely simple fact to google, or simply look up in an encyclopedia. I don't believe that it arguable.
If you are claiming that the State of Israel got a "disproportionately large chunk of the region called Palestine" in 1948, and therefore "foreigners" dispossessed "native Palestinians," in an arbitrary fashion that is unique in history, then I would humbly suggest that you need to study some more history.
One small fact in the above scenario is that there were no "Palestinians" in 1948. The only "Palestinians" that anyone, including all of the Arab peoples surrounding Israel referred to as "Palestinians" were the Jews.
The peoples that lived in what is now Israel were called by a number of different names - usually tribal and ethnic, such as Arabs or Bedouins, to be inclusive.
A "disproportionately large chunk of the region called Palestine" was given to the Hashemite dynasty of King Hussein by the British. We call that country Jordan. A remaining "disproportionately large chunk of the region called Palestine" was annexed by the country called Jordan in 1948. Today this area is generally referred to as either the West Bank or Judea and Samaria, since Israel took it away from Jordan in 1967.
Your insistence that this conflict was different from any of the other conflicts throughout the world in the twentieth century flies in the face of fact.
Quote:My argument has never been that Israel is worse than her neighbors, but that Israel is dealing with the Palestinians in an unjust and inhumane fashion
This I understand.
However, in order for you (and the "churches") to make this judgement, you have to have a scale of value.
Some things must be more "just" in order for Israel to treat the Palestinians unjustly.
Some things must be more "humane" in order for Israel to treat the Palestinians inhumanely.
By singling out Israel as "dealing with the Palestinians in an unjust and inhumane fashion," you are declaring that there are nations or peoples in the world that deal with similiar problems in a more just and humane fashion.
Which nation might that be?
What people might that be?
What country has dealt more justly or humanely with a people that have vowed, repeatedly, to destroy it and who, on a daily basis, have tried to murder its citizens (and
anyone else who happens to be in the way)?
In order for there to be injustice, you must have a just comparison.
In order for there to be inhumanity, you must have a humane comparison.
Otherwise, you are simply singling out Israel for censure and condemnation based on some other criteria...
And, therefore, that criteria should be legitimately questioned....