2
   

federally UNCONSTITUTIONAL state constitutional amendments

 
 
Brandon9000
 
  0  
Reply Sat 14 May, 2005 10:37 pm
Debra_Law wrote:
[quote="Brandon9000"]The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right.


Provide a citation to authority that would substantiate your vague claim. [/b][/quote]
You appear to be saying that my quotation "The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right" is a vague claim, and have asked me to post a citation for it. First of all, it is a perfectly specific claim. Furthermore, it is just on the face of it obvious. The alternative would be that the Constitution does protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right, which is absurd.

Debra_Law wrote:
I can provide thousands of citations to authority that refute your vague claim. I've already provided ample United States Supreme Court authority that refutes your vague claim.

Post just one citation to indicate that the Constitution protects anything anyone cares to claim as a right, and I will be thrilled.

Debra_Law wrote:
See, e.g., Lawrence v. Texas: "Individual decisions concerning the intimacies of their physical relationship, even when not intended to produce offspring, are a form of 'liberty' protected by the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment."



The relevant portion of the 14th Amendment:

"No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."
I agree that states cannot create or enforce laws which deprive the citizens of liberty, but I do not agree that anything in this thread has demonstrated that same sex marriage qualifies as a liberty.

As far as equal protection goes, it doesn't arise as an issue, since these laws appear to apply equally to everyone.

If you want to talk about legal precedent, though, the actual precendent is that as far as I know, same sex marriage has not been permitted in the world in any country in any epoch until just a few years ago. I cannot prove that categorically, but you are free to give me a counterexample in which a government recognized a same sex marriage some time before a few years ago. That is really the relevant precedent. You claim that legal precedent mandates that a form of marriage be recognized by society that has never been recognized legally by any society I am aware of. So, actually, legal precedent is squarely against you.

If such a major precedent is to be reversed, it ought to be reversed because the electorate wants it that way. However, knowing that you can't win this one democratically, you try to use the courts to do an end run around the people.

Debra_Law wrote:
3. The Equal Protection Clause. Unless a state has a compelling or legitimate interest in treating classes of persons differently, the state is prohibited from making or enforcing laws that discriminate.

Brandon9000 wrote:
I think the idea of these laws is that all citizens are equally forbidden from same sex marriages.


Marriage is a fundamental right. See Loving v. Virginia. The state may not infringe upon a fundamental right unless it has a compelling interest in doing so and the means used are necessary and narrowly tailored to serve that compelling interest.

First of all, the Equal Protection Clause is completely irrelevant, since these state laws appear to apply equally to everyone. Do they not forbid anyone to have a same sex marriage? Secondly, if you want to start citing case law, how's this for case law? The specific form of marriage you are talking about has never been sanctioned by the law of any country at any time as far as I know. All of human history is precedent against you. Feel free to give me counterexamples in which a government officially recognized a same sex marriage.

Debra_Law wrote:
The state does not have a compelling interest interest in prohibiting an individual from getting married (engaging in a fundamental right) based on the gender of his/her intended spouse.

A state prohibition on same sex marriages violates both the substantive due process clause and the equal protection clause.

I have demonstrated clearly that there is no violation of the Equal Protection Clause since none of these laws applies only to certain citizens or differently to different citizens. As for the due process clause, it only says that priviliges and liberties may not be abridged, not that same sex marriage is either. I cannot prove it, but I strongly suspect that the Founders would have told you that they absolutely did not intend to permit same sex marriage when they wrote or signed this. None of them had a same sex marriage which they tried to get official recogniton for.

Debra_Law wrote:
When a state makes and enforces laws that violate any of the clauses in the Fourteenth Amendment, that law is unconstitutional.

Brandon9000 wrote:
Prohibiting same sex marriage is not forbidden by anything the 14th Amendment actually says.


Yes. Prohibiting same sex marriage violates both the substantive due process clause and the equal protection clause. See above.

Only in the sense that the Amendment prohibits everything that Debra Law asserts is a right, but not based on anything findable in the Constitution or the lives of the people who wrote it.

Debra_Law wrote:
Did you read the Lawrence v. Texas case?

Quote:
I guess maybe only lawyers are allowed to interpret the Constitution. Yeah, I'm sure that's what the Founders had in mind.


You didn't read the case. Our forefathers intended that the Supreme Court shall have judicial power to interpret and apply the Constitution to all cases and controversies arising under the Constitution. Check out the Federalist Papers.

Believe it or not, the naive and uneducated interpretation of the Constitution according to Brandon9000 means nothing, but the interpretation and application of the Constitution by the U.S. Supreme Court to cases and controversies means everything.

Well, you can look at the color blue, and claim that it's actually red, and give numerous scholarly citations and testimonials. You can probably even work the ancient Greeks in. But it's still blue, not red.

Debra_Law wrote:
Do you understand that individual LIBERTY is protected by Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment?

Brandon9000 wrote:
Yes, but not anything you care to define as liberty.


I don't define liberty.

The Supreme Court defines liberty.

If you read the case, you would know that. The Supreme Court said: "Our obligation is to define the liberty of all, not to mandate our own moral code."

First of all, the Supreme Court has never said that the 14th Amendment means that the states can't prohibit same sex marriage. Furthermore, the Supreme Court justices are just humans, who even reverse themselves over time, and are perfectly capable of error. You are still fundamentally in the position of claiming that a small group of sentences say something that they manifestly do not say. I can make the same argument to prove that the government has to let me marry a tree.

Debra_Law wrote:
Do you understand that the majority of the people may not use the power of the state to infringe upon an individual's protected liberty interests unless there is a compelling state interest?

Quote:
Yes, this was foremost in Madison's mind when he worked on the Constution.


Very good. We've made some progress with respect to your understanding of the Constitution. However, Madison (1751-1836) did not write the Fourteenth Amendment (1868). The first eight amendments are limitations on the power of the federal government. The Fourteenth Amendment is a limitation on the power of state governments.

He is, however, one of the principal people who wrote the Constitution and the Bill of Rights.

Debra_Law wrote:
Do you understand that views with respect to morality (or immorality) alone are never sufficient to justify an infringement upon a fundamental liberty interest?

Brandon9000 wrote:
Seems to me it ought to be a balance between liberty and ethics, but, again, just because you claim a right doesn't mean it is a right. As far as I know the Founders never said anything at all in support of same sex marriage.


Marriage is a fundamental right, yet it is not enumerated in the Constitution. The enumeration of some rights retained by the people cannot be construed to deny or disparage other rights retained by the people. See the Ninth Amendment.

Nor does the failure to enumerate same sex marriage as a right prove that it is one.

Debra_Law wrote:
The concept of Liberty encompasses a broad range of human conduct and interaction. "Individual decisions concerning the intimacies of their physical relationship, even when not intended to produce offspring, are a form of 'liberty' protected by the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment." Lawrence v. Texas.

Anyone can have any physical relationship they want as far as I am concerned, except pedophilia. It is the goverment recognition of a legal relationship that I don't think the Constitution mangates.

Debra_Law wrote:

Brandon9000 wrote:

Someone can quote:
Quote:

We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.


and then claim that it means that everyone should be forced read the Bible every day, because they consider it to be in the interests of the welfare of their souls, but it's nonsense because the document doesn't say that. I don't care about your million word proof that the Constitution says laws can't be related to ethics. It doesn't say it.


You are contradicting yourself, Brandon.

If you're arguing that the state should be allowed to make laws based on people's opinions of right and wrong . . . then why can't a state make a law that requires people to read the bible every day?

Brandon9000 wrote:

First of all, I never said that they couldn't. I said that you can't twist the term "promote the general welfare" to mean that the Constitution mandates daily Bible reading. I was making a comparison to twisting the 14th Amendment to mean things it doesn't say. However, since you bring it up, just parenthetically, such a law would violate the First Amendment.


Brandon:

The Constitution provides that no cruel or unusual punishments shall be inflicted. It doesn't say what constitutes cruel or unusual punishments. So, how do we know what punishments are allowed and what punishments are prohibited?

The fact that the Constitution does not spell out every form of cruel and unusual punishment that is prohibited only begs the question. The prohibition has SUBSTANCE and it's the Court's duty to define what is and what is not cruel and unusual punishment based on the cases and controversies presented for a decision.

Similarly, the Fourteenth Amendment does not spell out all the ways a state can violate the privileges and immunities clause. The Fourteenth Amendment does not spell out all the ways that the state can violate the due process clause. The Fourteenth Amendment does not spell out all the ways that the state can violate the equal protection clause.

Your argument that the Fourteenth Amendment "doesn't say" that a state violates the Fourteenth Amendment when it infringes upon the fundamental right to marriage based on the gender of one's intended spouse ONLY BEGS THE QUESTION.

You have been maintaining for pages now that the prohibition of same sex marriages is unconstitutional, but now you admit that the Constitution only says that liberties and privileges should be protected, and that the Constitution does not inherently prohibit same sex marriage at all. You are making progress. If the document itself makes no judgement about whether some particular thing is a right, and judges then decide in a manner that is wildly contrary both to precedent and to the will of the people, that sounds kind of like the tyranny of a very small minority to me.

Debra_Law wrote:
Now let's look at your example. The majority of the people in the state believe it will promote the general welfare if every person within the jurisdiction of the state reads the bible every day. They believe it is right, moral, and ethical to read the bible every day. They believe it is wrong, immoral, and unethical if a person fails to read the bible every day. The State passes a law that effectuates the view of the majority.

You claim that this law would violate the First Amendment. But, have you read the First Amendment? It only applies to CONGRESS. And we all know that Congress is the legislative body of the FEDERAL government.

How would the First Amendment prohibit a STATE legislative body from passing such a law?

Think it through.

Okay, then, the combination of amendments 1 and 14. The first amendment establishes free speech as a specifically enumerated right, laying the groundwork for the application of the 14th.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Sat 14 May, 2005 11:12 pm
brandon, I thought your responses were pretty weak on philosophy but you are totally making yourself look silly trying to argue Constitutional Law.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Sat 14 May, 2005 11:20 pm
I see a serious ass-kicking coming Brandon's way soon. I will let Debra have the pleasure. It will be fun to watch although I am puzzled why anyone would have such gluttony for punishment.
0 Replies
 
Brandon9000
 
  0  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 12:23 am
Chrissee wrote:
I see a serious ass-kicking coming Brandon's way soon. I will let Debra have the pleasure. It will be fun to watch although I am puzzled why anyone would have such gluttony for punishment.

The nice thing about the Constitution is that it belongs to every American, not just a few scholars. Your anti-democratic nature is showing.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 06:54 am
Re: State's Rights
Debra_Law wrote:
fishin wrote:
Debra_Law wrote:
The issue of states' rights does NOT embrace the right of the moral majority may use the power of the State to enforce their views on the whole society through the operation of state laws.


Then we had better start eliminating all those laws that make things like murder, rape, arson, theft, etc.. illegal because the only rationale for having them is that the majority of people find those acts to be morally wrong.



You are wrong, fishin.[
Quote:


No... I don't think so. And you provide the proof yourself.

Quote:
All people are supposed to be EQUAL in the eyes of the law. The purpose of government is to SECURE the rights of ALL. States may regulate or criminalize injurious or harmful conduct. My fundamental rights to life and liberty protected against state infringement by the Fourteenth Amendment do not embrace any "right" to injure or harm other persons. Other persons are entitled to protection under the laws the same way that I am entitled to protection under the laws.


And why exactly is it that all people are supposed to be treated equeally under the law? Because it would be immoral not to do so!

Quote:
If you murder, rape, steal, or burn down someone's house, you are engaging in conduct that harms and injures other people. That conduct can be prohibited and punished by the state.
Quote:


What?? That conduct can be prohibited? But you've been claiming that it can't be.

Quote:
Living as citizens of the United States requires us to use reason and logic. Your argument possesses neither.


Logic requires a chain of consistant thought all pointed to the original premise - something you keep trying to change.

Quote:
People like Brandon claim they do not see (or understand) how the Fourteenth Amendment can be applied to prevent the moral majority from passing laws based on their perceptions of right or wrong.


I don't see Brandon making that claim at all. What he claimed was that there is no statment in the Constitution or the 14th Amendment that specifically states that morals can not be the basis for law.

Debra_Law wrote:

I did not sidestep his "help me, I can't see" arguments. The concepts of life, liberty, property, pursuit of happiness, and equality under the law have SUBSTANCE. He doesn't grasp the "substance" of the Fourteenth Amendment any more than you do.


I understand it just fine thank you. You DID side-step Brandon's questions just like you side-stepped the very direct and specific questions I asked.

Quote:
The fundamental right to liberty becomes an amorphous, meaningless concept if the majority of the people can simply take away the rights of the minority of the people through the power of the state. If you're not intellectually mature enough to grasp that elementary principle, then any further attempts to educate you are futile.


That's good Deb because you can't teach what you yourself don't understand. You started this line of comments with your claim that laws can not be based on morality and you continue to try and maintain that when you know full well it is 100% wrong. Our entire Constitution is based on morality - the morality that violating someone elses rights is wrong (i.e. immoral).

Debra_Law wrote:

Frankly, I find your strawman argument to be comical. I never argued: "morals can't be used a as rationale for law yet at the same time the entire argument for repealing state laws that prohibit gay/lesbians from marrying are because treating gays/lesbians differently is immoral."


I never said YOU did so if there is a strawman there iit's your's. It was a general comment on the overall theme.

Debra_Law wrote:
Contrary to your wild assertion, I never argued that it was immoral for people to base laws on morals. You mischaracterized the substance of my arguments which are based on Supreme Court precedent. Please educate yourself concerning Fourteenth Amendment jurisprudence.


lmao. So you NEVER stated that people can't pass laws based on morality???? That is EXACTLY what you stated Deb. Let me quote you again for your own clarification: "The issue of states' rights does NOT embrace the right of the moral majority may use the power of the State to enforce their views on the whole society through the operation of state laws."

It's fairly simple for anyone to go back in this thread and find your original post. I admit that you did change the wording later on to cover yourself with a few qualifications of the statement but that was the original statement that both Brandon and I challenged and that you have been unwilling to admit is flat out wrong. Instead of correcting your post and admitting you generalized you've gone on and on adding your precious citations that prove an entirely different point.
0 Replies
 
john w k
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 03:51 pm
Re: federally UNCONSTITUTIONAL state constitutional amendmen
Debra_Law wrote:


The Constitution means what the Supreme Court says it means. I have provided you with Supreme Court rulings to support every point I have made. And this is the best you can come up with: I don't think the Constitution says what you think it does?

Why don't YOU try to be "provocative."


Debra:

The notion that the constitution means what the Supreme Court says it means is far from being “provocative”. It’s just plain stupid, at least to a freedom loving people who intended to bind the hands of government by the chains of a written constitution! The truth is, the Constitution means what its framers and ratifiers intended it to mean!

As a matter of fact, the most fundamental principle regarding constitutional law is to carry out the intent of the constitution as contemplated by those who framed it and the people who ratified it. To do otherwise is to view the constitution as nothing more than a list of suggestions subject to the whims and fancies of those in political power. Fact is, the “intent” is what is to be followed, and not that which may be “squeezed” out of the text as Jefferson has informed us:


"On every question of construction [of the Constitution], let us carry ourselves back to the time when the Constitution was adopted, recollect the spirit manifested in the debates, and instead of trying what meaning may be squeezed out of the text, or invented against it, conform to the probable one in which it was passed."[/i]--Thomas Jefferson, letter to William Johnson, June 12, 1823, The Complete Jefferson, p. 322.

Justice Story writes in his commentaries: "If the Constitution was ratified under the belief, sedulously propagated on all sides, that such protection was afforded, would it not now be a fraud upon the whole people to give a different construction to its powers?"[/i]

“A constitutional provision is to be construed, as statutes are, to the end that the intent of those drafting and voting for it be realized."(Mack v Heuck (App) 14 Ohio L Abs 237)


"No part of the constitution should be so construed as to defeat its purpose or the intent of the people in adopting it."Pfingst v State (3d Dept) 57 App Div 2d 163 .


"the rule being that a written constitution is to be interpreted in the same spirit in which it was produced" Wells v Missouri P.R. Co.,110Mo 286,19SW 530.

"Where language used in a constitution is capable of two constructions, it must be so construed as to carry into effect the purpose of the constitutional convention.” Ratliff v Beal, 74 Miss.247,20 So 865 .

"In construing federal constitutional provisions, the United States Supreme Court has regularly looked for the purpose the framers sought to accomplish.” Everson v Board of Education, 330 US 1, 91 L Ed 711,67 S Ct 504, 168 ALR 1392.

"The primary principle underlying an interpretation of constitutions is that the intent is the vital part and the essence of the law." Rasmussen v Baker, 7 Wyo 117, 50 P 819.


And, see Rhode Island v. Massachusetts, 37 U.S. (12Pet.) 657,721(1838), in which the Supreme Court has pointed out that construction of the constitution "...must necessarily depend on the words of the Constitution; the meaning and intention of the conventions which framed and proposed it for adoption and ratification to the Conventions...in the several states...to which this Court has always resorted in construing the Constitution."


Even Congress understands this fundamental principle, even though they no longer follow it.:

"In construing the Constitution we are compelled to give it such interpretation as will secure the result intended to be accomplished by those who framed it and the people who adopted it...A construction which would give the phrase...a meaning differing from the sense in which it was understood and employed by the people when they adopted the Constitution, would be as unconstitutional as a departure from the plain and express language of the Constitution." Senate Report No. 21, 42nd Cong. 2d Session 2 (1872), reprinted in Alfred Avins, The Reconstruction Amendments’ Debates 571 (1967),


In addition to the above documentation, I you may find a recent Supreme Court decision quite interesting in which the Court references the Federalist Papers 18 times in order to find the legislative intent of our Constitution. See:UNITED STATES v. LOPEZ, ___ U.S. ___ (1995)] Also see: GREGORY v. ASHCROFT, 501 U.S. 452 (1991) and: Nixon v. United States (91-740), 506 U.S. 224 (1993).


The purpose of my post Debra is not to agitate you, but rather, to express a fundamental principle of constitutional law which ought to always be followed. Those who make claims as to the meaning of a constitutional provision, ought to always be ready to support their claims with documentation from those who framed and ratified the particular constitutional provision in question.

JWK
ACRS
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 03:57 pm
The fact remains that the Constitution is what the Supreme Court, the Supreme Law of the Land, says it is.
0 Replies
 
kuvasz
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 07:39 pm
Wondered when a member of the Federalist Society would wander by.

Welcome John W K, and I agree with some of your first post and none of your second.

I have preached for a while that homosexual marriage bans would run afoul of freedom to engage in contracts. When has anyone ever been prevented from participating in a contract because of the state of selfhood of another competent, adult party? Bob can marry Eve, but not Steve. It is a property of Steve's selfhood, his sex that restricts Bob's freedom to engage in a marriage contract? How its that reconciled with the idea of inalienable rights of the individual based upon human selfhood

As to "Original Intent:" Sorry, but on this we stand apart. "Original Intent" is an interesting approach, but intellectually clearly is more a political stance for anti-populist conservatism masquerading as judicial fealty to dead white men.

I would have thought Gore V. Bush would have settled that.

Original Intent is not the only way that the Constitution can be interpreted. Arguments can be made from the text, Constitutional theory, and precedent.

One would think that the text alone would suffice, but the Framers used language that was open-textured in seeking agreement, thus one is forced to examine what they meant or "intended." Yet a questions remains there too. Did the Framers themselves think their intentions should play a significant role in the interpretive process? It is tempting, in fact, to think that at precisely those points where the texts meaning is open to doubt, we ought to turn to what they originally had in mind.

However arguments about the Framers' intent to bring the meaning of the Constitution is difficult, since the Framers themselves were certainly quite resourceful hiding their intent immediately after the Convention. The Framers decided on the last day of the Convention (September 17, 1787) not to publish any record of their deliberations. Instead they entrusted all papers to the Convention President, George Washington.

Throughout the summer of 1787 there was a strict code of secrecy, a "gag" rule on all those in attendance. No one was to mention a word about the proceedings to anyone outside the Convention.

Madison, who kept the most extensive notes during the course of the Convention, also refused to publish his journal until after his death

…" or, at least, . . . till the Constitution should be well settled by practice, and till a knowledge of the controversial part of the proceedings of its framers could be turned to no improper account . . . . As a guide in expounding and applying the provisions of the Constitution, the debates and incidental decisions of the Convention can have no authoritative character."

He went on to stress that the meaning of the Constitution was determined by an interpretive process that continued long after the Philadelphia and State Conventions had closed their doors.

Madison's view that "precedents - at least those derived from 'authoritative, deliberate, and continued decisions' - served to 'fix the interpretation of a law.'"

In defense of the open-language of the Constitution and in response to the Anti-Federalist charge of the obscurity of some of its language, he had already acknowledged in The Federalist No. 37 that ……

"all new laws, though penned with the greatest technical skill, and passed on the fullest and most mature deliberation, are considered as more or less obscure and equivocal, until their meaning be liquidated and ascertained by a series of particular discussions and adjudications."

The meaning of the Constitution was to be found in a continuing process of interpretation and not in some specific set of intentions injected into the text at its inception. In fact, Madison was convinced that this was the predominant view held by those who attended the Philadelphia Convention:

"It could not but happen, and was foreseen at the birth of the Constitution, that difficulties and differences of opinion might occasionally arise in expounding terms and phrases necessarily used in such a charter . . . and that it might require a regular course of practice to liquidate and settle the meaning of some of them."

If the meaning for a key phrase or Article remains uncertain that meaning should not be settled by retrospective consultation of the Framers murky intentions but by an ongoing interpretive process. The Constitution's meaning is to be found in the history of interpretations and constitutional law rather than what the Framers originally had in mind.

Anyway, the Federalists argued their original intentions were not relevant, because they had only drafted a document to be endorsed by the American people. If intentions were to play a role in the interpretation of the text, they would have to be the intentions of those who accepted the Constitution, not those who wrote it.
0 Replies
 
Baldimo
 
  0  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 07:40 pm
Chrissee wrote:
The fact remains that the Constitution is what the Supreme Court, the Supreme Law of the Land, says it is.


So we have a tyranny by a few while the majority suffer at their hands. The SC are allowed to make law if they say the Constitution says it does. Nice to know you love vote, because what you are saying is that it doesn't matter how we vote or what laws are passed by the LAW MAKERS, if the SC doesn't like it or fit with what they think the Constitution says, they can over rule it.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 08:51 pm
Baldimo wrote:
Chrissee wrote:
The fact remains that the Constitution is what the Supreme Court, the Supreme Law of the Land, says it is.


So we have a tyranny by a few while the majority suffer at their hands. The SC are allowed to make law if they say the Constitution says it does. Nice to know you love vote, because what you are saying is that it doesn't matter how we vote or what laws are passed by the LAW MAKERS, if the SC doesn't like it or fit with what they think the Constitution says, they can over rule it.

Go read Fed papers. They destroy your argument pretty well.
The overriding document of law is the constitution. THe USSC determines the meaning of that constitution. The Legislature can't overrule it no matter what majority voted for them. The PEOPLE are the only ones with that right and their recourse is to amend the constitution. If you don't like a SC ruling your ONLY recourse under the constitution is amendment. Fed papers state that pretty clearly.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 09:09 pm
Baldimo wrote:
Chrissee wrote:
The fact remains that the Constitution is what the Supreme Court, the Supreme Law of the Land, says it is.


So we have a tyranny by a few while the majority suffer at their hands.


The Supreme Court, the ultimate arbiter of the rule of law and the ultimate check to see that the rule of the law is followed is now called a "tyranny by the few" by a young man who apparently considers himself a conservative and a patriot. Folks, this is astounding.
0 Replies
 
john w k
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 May, 2005 10:10 pm
kuvasz wrote:
Wondered when a member of the Federalist Society would wander by.Welcome John W K,

A bit presumptuous are you?


kuvasz wrote:
and I agree with some of your first post and none of your second.
I have preached for a while that homosexual marriage bans would run afoul of freedom to engage in contracts. When has anyone ever been prevented from participating in a contract because of the state of selfhood of another competent, adult party? Bob can marry Eve, but not Steve. It is a property of Steve’s selfhood, his sex that restricts Bob’s freedom to engage in a marriage contract? How its that reconciled with the idea of inalienable rights of the individual based upon human selfhood


Let me suggest that although a state is obligated to recognize contracts lawfully engaged in within its borders between individuals as a function of government, a state is not obligated to abandon it’s authority to classify contracts, nor prohibited to adopt public policy based upon the classification of contracts.

kuvasz wrote:
As to “Original Intent:” Sorry, but on this we stand apart. “Original Intent” is an interesting approach, but intellectually clearly is more a political stance for anti-populist conservatism masquerading as judicial fealty to dead white men.


Sorry you disagree with one of the most fundamental rules of contractual agreements___ enforcing the intent with which that contract [our constitutions, state and federal] came into existence. But those who would ignore this most fundamental rule seem to always obscure their motives, which I have generally found to be is a masked desire to use the force of government to impose their whims and fancies upon others.


JWK
0 Replies
 
kuvasz
 
  1  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 12:58 am
john w k wrote:
kuvasz wrote:
Wondered when a member of the Federalist Society would wander by.Welcome John W K,

A bit presumptuous are you?


Really? You thought all that stuff up yourself without any inkling that they were talking points for the Federalist Society? What a shocking coincidence,


john w k wrote:
kuvasz wrote:
and I agree with some of your first post and none of your second.
I have preached for a while that homosexual marriage bans would run afoul of freedom to engage in contracts. When has anyone ever been prevented from participating in a contract because of the state of selfhood of another competent, adult party? Bob can marry Eve, but not Steve. It is a property of Steve's selfhood, his sex that restricts Bob's freedom to engage in a marriage contract? How its that reconciled with the idea of inalienable rights of the individual based upon human selfhood


Let me suggest that although a state is obligated to recognize contracts lawfully engaged in within its borders between individuals as a function of government, a state is not obligated to abandon it's authority to classify contracts, nor prohibited to adopt public policy based upon the classification of contracts.


But that is not really the point, is it? Because a state is not going to be able to show just cause to restrict only those (marriage) contracts engaged between two men or two women without a compelling societal interest and regardles if a majority want to restrict the rights of minorities, we do, after all live in a republic.

john w k wrote:
kuvasz wrote:
As to "Original Intent:" Sorry, but on this we stand apart. "Original Intent" is an interesting approach, but intellectually clearly is more a political stance for anti-populist conservatism masquerading as judicial fealty to dead white men.


Sorry you disagree with one of the most fundamental rules of contractual agreements___ enforcing the intent with which that contract [our constitutions, state and federal] came into existence. But those who would ignore this most fundamental rule seem to always obscure their motives, which I have generally found to be is a masked desire to use the force of government to impose their whims and fancies upon others.


JWK


And sorry back at you for your attempt to put words in my mouth. However, we both know that is not the disagreement here.

You are blurring the discussion here by mixing the "intent" of the contract, viz., the Constitution with the contract itself. Truly

Quote:
"one of the most fundamental rules of contractual agreements_(is)__ enforcing the intent with which that contract [our constitutions, state and federal] came into existence.


The "intent" of a contract is to secure for the parties involved advantages they would not enjoy otherwise.

Yet the "intent" of the social contract we call the US Constitution is laid out in the Preamble, while the actual Articles lay out how the intentions expressed in the Preamble are to be achieved. The two are not the same thing.

I thought clearly I had noted the dichotomy between what the text says and the lack of consistent discussion, annotation, and more importantly, a general agreement from the Framers after 1787 on just how those intentions were to be achieved, or if they actually thought their ideas on any such intentions should be passed off as the final word and held sacred.

They themselves had questions about this, but those who call for "original intent" have no such qualms. Not only that, those who believe in original intent divine the intent of the Framers, but have to do so by interpretation when the text is unclear.

Even references to such qualms stated by the most notable author of the Constitution in Madison are ignored by the "original intent" supporters.

Passing off as sacred the mere words in the text without a current context renders them meaningless. The denotation is not the connotation, and ample evidence can be presented that bring into question what the Framers intended, and reiterating, more so unknown is if they believed those who followed them were to utilize exclusively any of their "original intentions" in later ages.

The intents of the workings of the Constitution were open to interpretation from the very beginning. Hamilton stated that clear enough.

From Federalist Paper Number 78.

Quote:
"The interpretation of the laws is the proper and peculiar province of the courts. A constitution is, in fact, and must be regarded by the judges, as a fundamental law. It therefore belongs to them to ascertain its meaning, as well as the meaning of any particular act proceeding from the legislative body'
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  2  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 05:05 am
Re: federally UNCONSTITUTIONAL state constitutional amendmen
john w k wrote:
Debra_Law wrote:


No. You cannot amend your state Constitution "for reasons of morality" if doing so violates the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution. If you have overlooked the Fourteenth Amendment in your constitutional studies, it's time for you to take a good look. You need to learn what lines government may NOT cross when legislating on the basis of peoples' ideas of right and wrong.


Debra,

The historical truth is, the 14th Amendment was adopted with the legislative intent to prohibit state adopted legislation based upon race color or previous condition of slavery, and, to preclude the power of the state to be used in such a fashion as to impose unequal burdens or treatment based upon race color or previous condition of slavery.

The legislative intent of the 14th Amendment was never intended to apply to state laws which make distinctions based upon criterion other than race, color or previous condition of slavery.


john w k:

The Fourteenth Amendment is not "legislation." It is a provision of the constitution and it trumps ordinary legislation. It was ratified by the states. You are partially correct concerning the intent behind the Fourteenth Amendment. It was, after all, a post civil war amendment. It was intended (in part) to benefit the newly freed slaves. But, the amendment was not intended solely for their benefit. The broad language in the Fourteenth Amendment is not limited in its application as you suggest.

Quote:
Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.


If the Fourteenth Amendment was intended to be limited solely to distinctions in state laws made on the basis of race, color, or previous condition of servitude, it would have said so.

See, e.g., the Fifteenth Amendment:

Quote:
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.


If it was intended that the Fourteenth Amendment to apply only as you suggest, then it would have been written like this: ". . . nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude."

That limiting language is NOT set forth in the Fourteenth Amendment. The United States Supreme Court does not limit cases brought under the Fourteenth Amendment in the manner you are suggesting. Your argument is without merit.



john w k wrote:
As to a federal judge striking down Nebraska’s same sex relation amendment, his decision appears to be bad law and an abuse of power because the plaintiffs, as far as I can determine, never challenged the amendment in Nebraska’s court system, i.e., the plaintiffs did not pursue Nebraska’s “due process” available to them within Nebraska‘s judicial system, and so, the claim to a denial of state “due process” in a federal court under the 14th Amendment is totally without merit.


You're wrong on two issues: 1) Jurisdiction; and 2) the Due Process Clause.

First, the plaintiffs were not required to bring suit in a state court. 28 U.S.C. Section 1331, Federal Question Jurisdiction, provides: "The district courts shall have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States."

Second, the Due Process Clause has two components: procedural and substantive. The Plaintiffs were not alleging that the State of Nebraska denied them procedural due process in their courts.

Your argument is without merit.


john w k wrote:
This of course is not to argue that Initiative 416, (Article I, Section 29 of the Nebraska State Constitution) ought to be upheld by Nebraska’s Courts or that the initiative does not violate the legislative intent of a provision of the federal constitution. Fact is, Initiative 416 not only violates the legislative intent of Article 4, Section 4 of the federal constitution [a guarantee to a Republican Form of Government and protection against “democracy” (mob rule vote) ], it also violates unalienable rights and protections secured to individuals under Nebraska’s Constitution, in that Nebraska’s Constitution was instituted to protect, among other things, the right of individuals to contract with one another. The law blatantly precludes state recognition of contracts between same sex individuals.

The law reads:
Quote:

Only marriage between a man and a woman shall be valid or recognized in Nebraska. The uniting of two persons of the same sex in a civil union, domestic partnership, or other similar same-sex relationship shall not be valid or recognized in Nebraska.


Freedom to contract which is a very broad and fundamental inalienable right of mankind was never intended by the adoption of Nebraska’s constitution to apply only to people of opposite sex.

Although the state of Nebraska may recognize contracts and classify them by different criterion [marriage, civil union, domestic partnerships, business partnerships, etc.] and set public policy based upon specific criterion, it would be an attack on the liberty of people to contract and the state’s obligation to recognize contracts should it refuse to recognize a contract between two people simply because they are the same sex.

Unfortunately, I have been unable to download the opinion of U.S. District Judge Joseph Bataillon and my opinion is based solely upon various news stories which I have read.


JWK


Uff dah. If you were handling the case, then you could raise your state constitutional arguments--as frivolous as they are (for a multitude of reasons). But (thank goodness), you weren't handling the case!
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  2  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 05:29 am
Brandon9000 wrote:
Debra_Law wrote:
[quote="Brandon9000"]The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right.


Provide a citation to authority that would substantiate your vague claim. [/b]


You appear to be saying that my quotation "The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right" is a vague claim, and have asked me to post a citation for it. First of all, it is a perfectly specific claim. Furthermore, it is just on the face of it obvious. The alternative would be that the Constitution does protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right, which is absurd. [/quote]

Absurd! Exactly! Where did I argue that the Constitution protects anything that anyone would care to claim as a right?

If I had said, "The Constitution protects anything that anyone would care to claim as a right," then maybe your response (in rebuttal) would have made sense.

But, I didn't say that. Therefore, on its face, the specifics of your statement were NOT obvious. I did, however, try to give you some credit beyond the absurdity of your apparent irrelevant response. I tried to give your vague statement some context within our discussion:

E.g., "[Homosexuals claim ______ as a constitutionally protected right], but the constitution does not necessarily protect _________ as a right."

I gave you an opportunity to give your vague statement some substance. I gave you an opportunity to fill in the blanks and to substantiate your statements with citations to authority. After all, I provided you with ample authority to support my statements.

BUT, as you have clearly pointed out (and others have clearly pointed out), your rebuttal statement was a mere strawman argument. You now admit that you were responding to argument that I didn't even make.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 08:56 am
Re: federally UNCONSTITUTIONAL state constitutional amendmen
john w k wrote:
The historical truth is, the 14th Amendment was adopted with the legislative intent to prohibit state adopted legislation based upon race color or previous condition of slavery, and, to preclude the power of the state to be used in such a fashion as to impose unequal burdens or treatment based upon race color or previous condition of slavery.

The legislative intent of the 14th Amendment was never intended to apply to state laws which make distinctions based upon criterion other than race, color or previous condition of slavery.

That is one way of looking at the drafting history of the fourteenth amendment, a position that has been embraced by Justice Felix Frankfurter, Charles Fairman, and Raoul Berger. On the other hand, I am persuaded that the main author of the amendment's first clause, Rep. John Bingham, drafted that clause primarily to incorporate the fundamental rights found in the first eight amendments and apply them to the states. In congressional debates, Bingham several times said that the intent of the fourteenth amendment was to overturn the supreme court's decision in Barron v. Baltimore, which had held that the Bill of Rights did not apply to state action.
    ...Bingham said that the Fourteenth Amendment would "arm the Congress ... with the power to enforce the bill of rights as it stands in the Constitution today." Bingham specifically stated that the Fourteenth Amendment was needed to overcome the effects of Barron v. Baltimore and Livingston v. Moore, which had held, respectively, that the Fifth and Seventh Amendments did not limit the states. Bingham stated, "Gentlemen admit the force of the provisions in the bill of rights, that the citizens of the United States shall be entitled to all the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States in the several States." Bingham said that Barron v. Baltimore "makes plain the necessity of adopting this amendment." The pamphlet version of Bingham's speech on the floor of Congress was subtitled a speech "in support of the proposed amendment to enforce the bill of rights."
"On Misreading John Bingham and the Fourteenth Amendment"

Ironically, Bingham undoubtedly intended the amendment's "privileges or immunities" clause to act as the vehicle for the incorporation of the Bill of Rights. That clause, however, was eviscerated by the supreme court's decision in the Slaughterhouse Cases, and today it is regarded as a constitutional dead letter. Rather, it was through the amendment's due process clause that the rights contained in the first eight amendments were gradually incorporated and made applicable to state action, a result that probably would have surprised Bingham. What we have here, then, is a situation where the court may have arrived at the correct destination even though it took the wrong route.

john w k wrote:
This of course is not to argue that Initiative 416, (Article I, Section 29 of the Nebraska State Constitution) ought to be upheld by Nebraska's Courts or that the initiative does not violate the legislative intent of a provision of the federal constitution. Fact is, Initiative 416 not only violates the legislative intent of Article 4, Section 4 of the federal constitution [a guarantee to a Republican Form of Government and protection against "democracy" (mob rule vote) ], it also violates unalienable rights and protections secured to individuals under Nebraska's Constitution, in that Nebraska's Constitution was instituted to protect, among other things, the right of individuals to contract with one another. The law blatantly precludes state recognition of contracts between same sex individuals.

The "republican form of government" clause in the constitution has, in effect, been completely unenforceable by the courts since the supreme court's decision in Luther v. Borden, 48 U.S. 1 (1849), which held that the character of a state's government was entirely a "political question." Likewise, a state's ability to hold binding initiatives was upheld (on similar grounds) in Pacific States Telephone & Telegraph Co. v. Oregon, 223 U.S. 118 (1912). There is, consequently, nothing inherently unconstitutional about a state permitting its citizens to rule themselves by means of a binding initiative.

As for your second point, a marriage is not a contract. Marriages, therefore, are not covered by the constitution's contracts clause.
0 Replies
 
Baldimo
 
  0  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 04:13 pm
Chrissee wrote:
Baldimo wrote:
Chrissee wrote:
The fact remains that the Constitution is what the Supreme Court, the Supreme Law of the Land, says it is.


So we have a tyranny by a few while the majority suffer at their hands.


The Supreme Court, the ultimate arbiter of the rule of law and the ultimate check to see that the rule of the law is followed is now called a "tyranny by the few" by a young man who apparently considers himself a conservative and a patriot. Folks, this is astounding.


I don't have an issue with the Constitution; I have a problem with the SC telling us what they think is the law according to the Constitution. They make things up to fit what they think. According to some here the term pursuit of happiness means we can have SS and welfare. I didn't know happiness meant free money from the taxpayers.
0 Replies
 
kuvasz
 
  1  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 07:29 pm
debra

your remarks about the specific details on properties of personhood listed in the 15th amendment ("race or past condition of slavery") held in relief to the rather unspecific one mentioned in the 14th amendment ("persons") shows the fulcrum of debate on such issues. The strict constitutionalists point to the denotation, the letter of the law, the specifics of a particular case, while those who proceed from a less strict or doctrinaire view of the text insist that specifics just exemplify a particular subset of the general, and it is the general set of conditions that must be taken into account and used as the determinant.

One wonders not at all that a strict constitutionalist will speak of an inherent property of a person, the subset of his/her "race" without mentioning at all that the subset is merely a specific example of the superset. Race is a subset of the inherent properties people possess. If one is not allowed to discriminate upon race, then one can not discriminate upon other inherent properties that make up humans.

One has the responsibility to explain why race does not matter in granting rights and this leads back to personhood or selfhood and the properties inherent in being a sentient human being.

Black and white Americans are equal not because black and white are equal, but because inherently people are equal. Race is merely a subset of the superset of humanity.

I believe this is well understood by the anti-gay rights activists who insist that homosexuality is learned and not merely another inherent property of some humans. if it is admitted that it is inherent, then as with race, there can be no reason to deny rights to homosexuals that are held by non-homosexuals.
0 Replies
 
Brandon9000
 
  0  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 07:46 pm
Re: federally UNCONSTITUTIONAL state constitutional amendmen
Debra_Law wrote:
Brandon9000 wrote:
The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right.


Provide a citation to authority that would substantiate your vague claim....

The above post is here

One must presume from the fact that you quoted me that this is the claim you are referring to. You ask for a citation to support it. If you want me to support it, that means you must think it might be wrong. If you do not think it might be wrong, why would you ask me for a citation to support it? If the statement:

Brandon9000 wrote:
The Constitution doesn't necessarily protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right.


is wrong, then the only possible alternative is that the Constitution does protect anything anyone cares to claim as a right. That is such an absurd idea that I need not provide a citation to refute it.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Mon 16 May, 2005 08:17 pm
Baldimo wrote:

I don't have an issue with the Constitution; I have a problem with the SC telling us what they think is the law according to the Constitution. They make things up to fit what they think. According to some here the term pursuit of happiness means we can have SS and welfare. I didn't know happiness meant free money from the taxpayers.


So your problem is that you have an issue with the constitution because the Constitution gives the USSC the power to do what you have a problem with.

The Constitution says the USSC gets to decide the meaning of the constitution. It can't be much simpler than that. (Your strawman argument about "free money" not withstanding.)
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.05 seconds on 04/19/2024 at 12:53:05