23
   

The anti-gay marriage movement IS homophobic

 
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 05:55 am
The Anglican church does not recognize matrimony as a sacrament, and never has:

Of sacraments, in this sense of the word, Protestant churches admit of but two; and it is not easy to conceive how a greater number can be made out from Scripture, if the definition of a sacrament be just which is given by the church of England. By that church, the meaning of the word sacrament is declared to be "an outward and visible sign of an inward and spiritual grace given unto us, ordained by Christ himself, as a means whereby we receive the same, and a pledge to assure us thereof."--Accorcing to this definition, baptism and the Lord's supper are certainly sacraments, for each consists of an outward and visible sign of what is believed to be an inward and spiritual grace, both were ordained by Christ himself, and in the reception of each does the Christian solemnly devote himself to the service of his divine Master.

Buck's Theological Dictionary, 1820.

I have been able to find no reference to Anglican canon law regarding matrimony. I would therefore be obliged if you could provide a source, although i do doubt your contention.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:00 am
Thomas, the issue of what the marriage contract bestows is exactly what this argument is about. Yoor observations about the same sex couples who married here are not only irrelevant but inaccurate as well. Have you met and conversed with even one person who married here in San Francisco?
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:14 am
Quote:
Even if I did grant you that yours was an accurate description of American law, purely contractual, and about property rights, I would still contend that contracts, property and law is not what this is really about. The gay community says it is in order to keep a low profile -- kind of like the phony sunset clauses that gave Bush's 2003 tax cuts the semblance of legality and fiscal responsibility.


Well, far be it for me to speak for the "gay community"even though I live in the gayest community in the US (as opposed to someone who attempts to speak for the US gay community who doesn't even live in the same hemisphere!) but I can safely say that for most of us, property, contracts and equal justice under the law is EXACTLY what it is about.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:20 am
Setanta wrote:
I have been able to find no reference to Anglican canon law regarding matrimony. I would therefore be obliged if you could provide a source, although i do doubt your contention.

Here you go:

In chapter 15 of his Commentaries, Blackstone wrote:
I. OUR law considers marriage in no other light than as a civil contract. The Holiness of the matrimonial state is left entirely to the ecclesiastical law: the temporal courts not having jurisdiction to consider unlawful marriages as a sin, but merely as a civil inconvenience. The punishment therefore, or annulling, of incestuous or other unscriptural marriages, is the province of the spiritual courts; which act pro salute animae.1 And, taking it in this civil light, the law treats it as it does all other contracts; allowing it to be good and valid in all cases, where the parties at the time of making it were, in the first place, willing to contracrt; secondly, able to contract; and, lastly, actually did contract, in the proper forms and solemnities required by law.

FIRST, they must be willing to contract. "Consensus, non concubitus, facit nuptias," is the maxim of the civil law in this case:2 and it is adopted by the common lawyers,3 who indeed have borrowed (especially in ancient times) almost all their notions of the legitimacy of marriage from the canon and civil laws.

SECONDLY, they must be able to contract. In general, all persons are able to contract themselves in marriage, unless they labor under some particular disabilities, and incapacities. What those are, it will here be our business to inquire.

NOW these disabilities are of two sorts: first, such as are canonical, and therefore sufficient by the ecclesiastical laws to avoid the marriage in the spiritual court; but these in our law only make the marriage voidable, and not ipso facto void, until sentence of nullity be obtained. Of this nature are pre-contract; consanguinity, or relation by blood; and affinity, or relation by marriage; and some particular corporal infirmities.

Source (Blue to highlight what supports your point, red to highlight what supports mine.)

I am not an expert in Anglican canon law, and on whether it proscribed same sex marriage explicitly, but I am very confident that same sex marriage would have been among the "disabilities" which, according to Blackstone, would "avoid the marriage in the spiritual court".

Chrissee wrote:
Yoor observations about the same sex couples who married here are not only irrelevant but inaccurate as well. Have you met and conversed with even one person who married here in San Francisco?

No, but with one gay Dutch couple shortly after the Netherlands legalized same sex marriages, and two couples here in Munich after civil unions were legalized here. I didn't get the impression that contracts and property were at the heart of the matter. And I was assuming, without actually knowing, that feelings about this in San Francisco were about the same.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:32 am
You may well be confident of homosexual marriage having been subject to such disability, but in quoting Blackstone, you in no wise support a contention that Blackstone thought as much. I would concede the point that Blackstone may have--but i would also point out that, according to Buck, matrimony was not a sacrament of the Anglican Church, and as such, throws into doubt Blackstone's contention, as quoted by you above that: "The Holiness of the matrimonial state is left entirely to the ecclesiastical law . . . "--insofar as, absent a direct reading of Canon law, i am lead to conclude by Buck's statement, that the Anglican establishment did not consider matrimony a sacrement, and would therefore have been mute on the subject in canon law.

It remains to be seen, from a reliable source on Anglican cannon law, what the church's position may have been.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:37 am
Setanta wrote:
I would concede the point that Blackstone may have--but i would also point out that, according to Buck, matrimony was not a sacrament of the Anglican Church [...]

Fair enough. I never made any argument from marriage being a sacrament, so felt no need to back up that it was. I only said that canon law and ecclesial courts regulated parts of marriage law in pre-1776 Britain, and for that my Blackstone quote provides an adequate basis in my humble opinion.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:39 am
Thomas, I have been told that many people stood in line primarily as a political statement in suppport of EQUAL RIGHTS. Of course, virtually any loving couple who participate in any ceremony confirming their union are going to celebrate that fact alone. But it is irrelevant to the debate of equal rights.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:42 am
I disagree, as your quote of Blackstone reads, in part: " . . . first, such as are canonical, and therefore sufficient by the ecclesiastical laws to avoid the marriage in the spiritual court . . . " which posits a possibility of ecclesiastical intervention but does not at all enumerate what objections canon may have had to any particular marriage. Blackstone's exercise here is simply to exculpate himself from treading in the preserve of a religious establishment, which the Anglican Church was at that time.
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:44 am
Quote:
You may well be confident of homosexual marriage having been subject to such disability


Same sex marriage is the correct term. You cannot assume that two people who want to marry are necessarly "homosexual." There are a lot of asexual people out there too.
0 Replies
 
spendius
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 06:46 am
Would homesexual relations be classed as a form of celibacy?
0 Replies
 
Chrissee
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 07:20 am
spendius wrote:
Would homesexual relations be classed as a form of celibacy?


WTF are homesexual relations? Assuming you did mean homosexual realtions. If so, what is your point? Do not assume that two people who want to form a bonded realtionship are having sexual relations. And, besiedes, it isn't any of your business. Any attempt to characterize two people of the same sex who want to get married as "homosexuals" is merely an assumption, one that in some cases, is not a fact.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 07:54 am
Quote:
Look George-traditional marriage is under attack by those who have something to gain from wrecking it.


This is a bright notion, and one george or many others who argue a similar case, aren't much prepared to look at...because it turns against another set of cherished ideas regarding unencumbered zest for wealth and the elevated social status that comes from class structure.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 08:04 am
I was prepared to let it pass, but now i don't think that i shall. Chrissee is just as wrong in attempting to force terms of discussion on us as are the religiously fanatical. The religious fanatic uses the term "same-sex marriage" as a blind to cover their disgust with homosexuals. But this issue in this thread and in society at large arises from the horror with which the religoius fanatic regards the prospect of homosexuals marrying and thereby becoming entitled to priveleges commensurate with those obtained by heterosexuals who marry.

Same sex marriage will now always be an issue, because the relgiously fanatical have chosen to bandy the term about in their desire to divert scrutinty from the true basis of their agenda. The fact remains, however, that it is the prospect of any social imprimatur accruing to homosexuals which motivates the hateful frenzy of the religious fanatic.

Edit: And therefore, i will continue to avail myself of the term homosexual marriage.
0 Replies
 
blatham
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 08:09 am
Quote:
It is not traditional marriage that is directly associated with the litany of social ills enumerated by Debra Law, but rather the absence of it and the many assaults on it by adverse social & economic factors. What she proposes would add yet another stress to an already seriously stressed institution on which we all depend in one way or another. This aspect of her argument defies common sense and is laughably absurd.


No, george, it is your argument which doesn't hold together because you don't take care to even take the time to mount much more than a loud "Sophistry!!" as you stumble out the door. Debra's arguments are clear, sequential and grounded in constitutional law/argument (quoted).
0 Replies
 
georgeob1
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 11:59 am
Nonsense. I have clearly identified the false premise on which her rather lengthy argument is based and demonstrated the contradictions it entails.

I'll agree the structure of her argument is complex and substantial, but once it collapses on its foundations, it is so much rubble.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 03:00 pm
Setamta writes
Quote:
The Anglican church does not recognize matrimony as a sacrament, and never has:



From the Episcopal Dictionary
Sacraments
Quote:
From the Latin word sacrare, meaning to "consecrate." According to the prayer book, sacraments are "outward and visible signs of inward and spiritual grace." Sacraments are physical actions that point us to deeper realities than we are able to experience with our five senses. The Episcopal Church recognizes two major, or "gospel" sacraments, and five minor sacraments, or sacramental acts. The two major sacraments, Baptism and Communion, and called gospel sacraments because Jesus told us (in the gospels) to do them until he comes again. The five sacramental acts (or minor sacraments) are not all necessarily required of all Christians. They are Confirmation, Marriage, Ordination, Reconciliation, and Unction.
http://www.holycross.net/anonline.htm


The Sacrament of Marriage in the Anglican Church

Quote:
We call marriage a Sacrament because it provides visible evidence of the invisible reality of a couple's love for each other as indeed of God's love for the world.
http://www.nspeidiocese.ca/ministry/Marriage.htm
0 Replies
 
Walter Hinteler
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 03:06 pm
The Anglican church insists on only two of the sacraments: baptism and communion. The other five sacraments are still important rites, but are not considered essential to salvation.
0 Replies
 
Foxfyre
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 03:28 pm
Well for that matter it doesn't consider baptism or communion essential for salvation either though it puts importance on both.
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 03:40 pm
georgeob1 wrote:
Some here argue that the government has no right making any distinctions among people or the choices they make in their lives. This is manifestly contrary to the facts and an absurd bit of semantical trickery.

Government makes and acts on distinctions among people every day in numerous ways
---


Fact: Government makes distinctions every day in numerous ways.

So what? Your statement proves NOTHING.

The only thing that is absurd is that you somehow think this fact is both the starting point and the ending point. In your over-simplistic view, you claim that the government makes distinctions all the time -- case closed.

This only demonstrates YOUR lack of sophistication and knowledge. The case is far from closed. If you were paying attention, then you would know that all distinctions (or classifications) are subject to the following framework:

When the government makes distinctions or classifications based on a suspect class, the government must have a compelling interest in doing so. The means used to serve that compelling interest must be necessary and narrowly tailored.

When the government makes and enforces a law that infringes upon a fundamental right, the government must have a compelling interest in doing so. The means used to serve that compelling interest must be necessary and narrowly tailored.

When the government makes distinctions or classifications based on a quasi-suspect class, the government must have an important interest in doing so. The means used to serve that important interest must be substantially related.

For all other laws, the government must have a legitimate interest. The means used to serve that legitimate interest must be rationally related. Arbitrary and capricious laws are unconstitutional.


Quote:
Government makes and acts on distinctions among people every day in numerous ways --- criminals and the innocent; people who earn more than $178 thousand per year and who are subject to a 33% income tax and people who make less and are taxed at a lower rate; people enjoying long-term capital gains and those who don't; people eligible for Social Security & Medicare benefits and those who are not; people in "protected" groups because of age, race, disability or other factors and those who must go through their lives "unprotected"; the list could go on for pages. These distinctions are of all kinds - some involving choices people make, others arising from who or what they are or even where they live.


So what? You haven't proven anything. What does social security have to do with same-sex marriage? The fact that the government makes distinctions all the time doesn't mean that ALL OF ITS DISTINCTIONS are constitutional. Some may be constitutional; some may be unconstitutional. You have to put each and every one of these purported distinctions through the analytical framework. Each distinction either survives or fails constitutional scrutiny on its own merits.


If you don't understand that fundamental concept of the law, there is absolutely no hope for you to develop your powers of reason and logic. If you cannot intellectually grasp that point A is the starting point and then you move to point B, there is no hope for you.

Merely stating the government makes distinctions all the time proves NOTHING.


Quote:
That government has the interest, the right and ability to make distinctions among people who enter into contracts, and concerning their treatment of their children is obvious and beyond dispute.


The government may have an interest in the welfare of children -- so what? Again, you don't expand your intellectual capacity beyond the obvious.

The government does not have complete authority to do anything it wants to do simply because it proclaims an interest. There are certain lines that the government may not cross. This is a basic concept that you haven't figured out yet.



Quote:
A government distinction between homosexual unions and unions between men and women is based on natural fact and likely social consequence. There is no basic right violated by such distinctions (unless perhaps one is also prepared to argue against affirmative action, the graduated income tax, and many other basic elements of our society.)


You have no understanding at all. You think all distinctions are the same; but they are not.

The distinctions you attempt to make between homosexual and heterosexual relationships based "natural fact" (what the hell is that?) and "social consequence" (again, what do you mean? moral disapproval?) are arbitrary and capricious. The distinctions are not rationally related to any legitimate governmental interest. The distinctions are not necessary or narrowly tailored to serve any compelling governmental interest. The distinctions infringe upon the fundamental right to marry and are UNCONSTITUTIONAL.


Quote:
This whole argument put forward by Debre Law is contrary to analogous facts and consistent thinking. It is sophistry.


You can't compare an individual's fundamental right to marry with a taxpayer's obligation to pay taxes. Your analogy makes no sense at all.

According to you, because the government makes some constitutional distinctions . . . then all distinctions are constitutional. You are wrong. The fact the courts have repeatedly struck down laws as unconstitutional proves that you are wrong.

Your entire argument is based on the fact that "the government makes distinctions all the time." I can show you where the government has made distinctions time and time again that were declared unconstitutional. But, you know that. You're just trying to blow smoke up our behinds. And that blows your entire argument to shreds.



Quote:
It is not traditional marriage that is directly associated with the litany of social ills enumerated by Debra Law, but rather the absence of it and the many assaults on it by adverse social & economic factors. What she proposes would add yet another stress to an already seriously stressed institution on which we all depend in one way or another. This aspect of her argument defies common sense and is laughably absurd.


If two homosexuals get married in Massachusetts . . . how is that going to cause your traditional marriage to fall apart?

You're stating a conclusion without setting forth any substantiating facts.

Same-sex marriage is not an assault upon traditional marriage. If a husband and wife can't make their marriage work -- that problem has nothing to do with the fact that other people are getting married. The failure of a marriage lies on the shoulders of the people involved in THAT marriage.

What are you going to tell your wife? "Honey, the State of Massachusetts allowed Jim and Joe to get married. I find that to be an assault upon our marriage and now we have to get divorced." GET REAL!

You can't blame the homosexuals for the problems you're having in your own marriage. Where is your common sense?
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Apr, 2005 04:18 pm
georgeob1 wrote:
Nonsense. I have clearly identified the false premise on which her rather lengthy argument is based and demonstrated the contradictions it entails.

I'll agree the structure of her argument is complex and substantial, but once it collapses on its foundations, it is so much rubble.


You have done no such thing. My argument is based on the Constitution and Supreme Court decisions.

Your argument is merely this: The government makes distinctions all the time. It makes some constitutional distinctions -- therefore, ALL DISTINCTIONS are constitutional.

Your argument is FALSE. The fact that the government makes distinctions all the time proves NOTHING. Each and every distinction survives or fails constitutional scrutiny on its own merits.

Despite your bragging, you have not single-handedly collapsed the Constitution and turned it into rubble.

Show me ONE SINGLE CASE wherein any court in the land has accepted your "the government makes distinctions all the time" argument to ignore its obligation to examine the case at hand. The judges would tell you this: "SO WHAT? That's irrelevant. Tell us why THIS particular distinction is constitutional." Never once has a court stated, "Well . . . the government makes distinctions among people by placing them in tax brackets according to income . . . so, we believe all distinctions are constitutional." <------ridiculous.

You have yet to state any legitimate reason for government to ban same-sex marriages.
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

New York New York! - Discussion by jcboy
Prop 8? - Discussion by majikal
Gay Marriage - Discussion by blatham
Gay Marriage -- An Old Post Revisited - Discussion by pavarasra
Who doesn't back gay marriage? - Question by The Pentacle Queen
 
Copyright © 2025 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.04 seconds on 05/06/2025 at 10:16:14