So much misinformation, so little time to correct it all.
Foxfyre wrote:So you are are saying that if the Texas Supreme Court had ruled on Roe v Wade before Coffee and Weddington got ahold of it, it never would have been accepted by SCOTUS?
Roe was filed in federal court because it involved a federal question, i.e. the right to privacy as established in
Griswold v. Connecticut. I don't know what
Roe would have looked like if it had been filed in state court and decided by the Texas supreme court, but then it wouldn't have been the
Roe case. If the Texas supreme court, however, had decided the case on federal constitutional grounds, then the US supreme court might have had grounds to review its decision.
Foxfyre wrote:At the time of the California ruling, the California law still defined marriage as a contractual relationship, recognized by the state, between one man and one woman and all provisions of and restrictions related to such contract are equally applicable to any and all citizens. Therefore there was no equal protection issue involved and the California Court acted improperly.
The California supreme court thought differently, but it doesn't matter: the case was decided under the California constitution's equal protection clause, not under the fourteenth amendment's equal protection clause.
Foxfyre wrote:I don't think the California Supreme Court provided a sufficient legal basis for their recent ruling and that could be the basis on which the High Court could agree to hear the case.
Really? Have you even read
the court's decision? (.pdf) Point out the parts of the court's opinion that you disagree with.
Foxfyre wrote:It won't be decided on the issue of gay marriage. It will be decided on the right of a governing body to designate the terms of a legal contract.
That still wouldn't provide a basis for the US supreme court to exercise jurisdiction in this case.
Foxfyre wrote:Well, I've at least read up on it. And looked at some cases in which SCOTUS overruled the state courts and those in which SCOTUS decided they had no jurisdiction. Joe may be right that it won't be this particular case that makes it to SCOTUS but sooner or later SCOTUS will have to rule on this issue unless Congress passes a Constitutional amendment defining marriage.
The US supreme court won't rule on the issue presented in the California case -- it simply has no basis for doing so. Now, it's possible that the US supreme may have to decide some issue that is ancillary to the California decision, such as a comity clause case arising from another state's refusal to recognize a homosexual marriage entered into in California, but that's a different issue. As for the right of Californians to enter into homosexual marriages, that issue was definitively settled yesterday.
Foxfyre wrote:Look Fishin, you seem to be spoiling for a fight and I'm not. I expressed an opinion that may or may not be justified. If you don't like the basis I've already provided, it is unlikely that I'll come up with one you'll like better. Are you a Constitutional lawyer? Or any kind of lawyer? If so, I'll bow to your superior knowledge on this subject and trust that you will provide your own opinion.
Fishin isn't a lawyer, but I am. You may, therefore, bow down to me.