Ticomaya wrote:Using that rule, then, if it could be shown that Saddam's Iraq shielded, harbored, supported, and protected terrorists, the US's attack was legitimate under International Law?
If international law had only that one rule, then I suppose the US could attack any nation that harbored terrorists. Of course, under that single rule, any nation could attack the US, since there are terrorists here as well.
International law, however, embraces a wide variety of rules. One of the most venerable is the "principle of proportionality." This principle holds that a state's use of force must be proportional both to the threat and to the objective. A massive attack can be met with a massive attack, a minor threat must be met with proportionally less intensity. So, for instance, when Libyan agents were suspected of bombing a nightclub in Berlin, the response was to bomb selected targets in Libya, not invade the nation and overthrow its ruling regime. A nation is entitled to meet force with force; it is not entitled to meet
everything with force.
Iraq undoubtedly had terrorists or terrorist wannabes living within its borders (every large nation does, even the US). And I think it is clear that Iraq supported terrorism to some degree (e.g. funding various Palestinian terrorist organizations). There is, however, a substantial difference between the al Qaida attack on the US and the limited assistance that Saddam Hussein gave to terrorists in the Middle East. International law required that the US recognize that difference and to calibrate its responses accordingly.
Although the UN Charter says nothing about the principle of proportionality, a military response that is not proportional is nevertheless directly contrary to international law. And any leader who authorizes a disproportionate military response would open himself to charges of war crimes, since breaches of traditional international law can form the basis of a war crimes indictment.