@InfraBlue,
InfraBlue wrote:They weren't following Jewish dietary practices. Merely, the husbandry of pigs wasn't viable for them. Jewish dietary practices developed quite some time after that time period.
If the absence of pigs started first as a practical matter and then developed later as a religious custom, that is certainly an interesting part of the development of their religion. But it doesn't change the fact that the Israeli people populated the West Bank region starting around 1200 BC, and they can be identified as not eating any pigs at the time.
Although that Finkelstein article that you linked does show that the non-pig thing was ultimately more of a Judah thing than a northern Israelite thing.
InfraBlue wrote:Right. There is a lack of pig bones at Canaanite and Philistine sites all over Palestine in that time. The pertinent time period is Iron Age IIB where there is an almost complete lack of pig bones in Judah which indicates the beginnings of Jewish dietary practices.
Since the point was about the population of 1200 BC, the pertinent time period would seem to be Iron Age I.
InfraBlue wrote:oralloy wrote:Archaeologists regard these Iron Age I settlements as being continuously settled by the same population well into the time of the later Israelite kingdoms, and thus regard the Iron Age I settlements as an early version of the same Israelite culture that created those later kingdoms.
This debatable assertion is irrelevant to the fact that Jewish dietary practices developed at a later time period.
That "debatable" assertion is the consensus of the world's archaeologists.
InfraBlue wrote:I've responded above to your confused reading and interpretation.
There is no confusion on my end.
I am not interpreting anything. I am merely relaying the consensus of the world's scientists.
InfraBlue wrote:oralloy wrote:Archaeologists date Israelite remains as far back as 1200 BC.
And the northern Israelite Kingdom left large and very significant remains during the ninth century BC.
You're confusing references to Israel with Israelites.
It doesn't matter since they are the same people regardless.
But no confusion on my end. The term "Israelite" is the term used to refer to the ancient Iron Age culture. Especially when it refers to the powerful northern kingdom, which specifically referred to themselves as "Israelites".
InfraBlue wrote:oralloy wrote:That article is about a single city only. If the northern Israelite Kingdom did not have a presence in that one specific city until the eighth century, that does not change the fact that the northern Israelite Kingdom had a very large presence in other places during the ninth century.
The article actually confirms the existence of the powerful northern Israelite kingdom during the ninth century. It refers to the Omride Dynasty as being at the same time as what they call "the first building period" (of that single city that they're referring to).
The article confirms the fact that distinctly "Israelite" remains begin to appear until the 8th century BCE.
No it doesn't (and that is anything but a fact).
When that article talks about remains starting in the 8th century BC, it is referring only to remains within one single city on the far outskirts of the northern Israelite Kingdom.
That article also makes a direct reference to the Israelites existing as a powerful kingdom in the early ninth century BC.