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Animals, Eating Meat and Moral Standing

 
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 10:35 am
Conrad Lorenz said that our pets are prisoners. That's a more or less reasonable proposition, but it ignores the immense improvement in quality and length of life which this affords our pets. Livestock raised for slaughter, or course, aren't getting a longer life, but they're also not enduring the life which their wild ancestors had to face. They're not hunted day and night, they're not subject to literally hundreds of parasites inside and out, they're not subject to winter die off. About the only objection here that makes much sense is the objection about cruelty, and "humane" slaughter techniques are available, and recommend themselves for reasons of efficiency. About the only forms of institutional cruelty of which i can think is the starving of calves who are going to be slaughtered for veal, and the force-feeding of geese for foie gras. I can do well without either of those products.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 11:23 am
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
There's no requirement that everyone be able to articulate their own moral preferences, just as there's no requirement, in social contract theory, that everyone express consent to the social contract. It is, however, necessary that someone in the category has moral agency.

This argument doesn't address the problem. It evades it by using the term "category" as a weasel word: Comatose humans have rights because they are "in the same category" as noncomatose humans. Who placed them in the same category, and by what standard? By contrast, nonhuman animals have no rights because they are not in the same category as human animals. Again, who placed them in a different category, and by what ethically-relevant standard? How is your argument from categories any more than fancy-worded question begging?

joefromchicago wrote:
There you go again. Wanting to have you utilitarian cake and eat it too.

There you go again, failing to distinguish between the claims "X is not an axiom within logical system S" and "X is not a true proposition within logical system S".

joefromchicago wrote:
I'm not asking if there are higher-order rules in the event of a tie. I'm asking why some entities' rights are calibrated against some other entity's rights. For instance, why should a dog have 75% of a human's rights, on the assumption that a dog has 75% of a human's capacity to suffer? Why not make the same comparison between humans?

I am making the same comparison between humans, and the obvious result is that a human has 100% of a human's rights. But then, maybe I don't understand what you're asking. I don't see how the relative weight of rights would ever be relevant if there was no conflict between different entities' rights.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
On our capability to imagine different possible futures for ourselves for years out, on our obvious capability to suffer or rejoice in those imaginations, and on the inability of animals to do the same, to the best of our zoological knowledge.

Have you asked a dog what it thinks about that?

No I haven't. I also haven't asked that question to any comatose patients, or any humans with severe mental handicaps. Why should that stop me from recognizing that comatose patients and the mentally handicapped should have rights?

joefromchicago wrote:
As Thomas Nagel would point out, you have no idea what it would be like to be a tree.

Then maybe I'm mistaken in my factual assumptions about trees. The same problem occurs, at some point, in every ethical system. In this case as in others, I'll just do the best I can: make my best guess and take the risk of guessing wrongly.

Thomas wrote:
I'm pretty sure that [Rawls] does want a society with rights for the mentally disabled. I'm also pretty sure that he would justify them from an original position that accounts for the possibility of us being born mentally handicapped.

joefromchicago wrote:
Yep. But that doesn't mean that we should also take into account the possibility of being born a dog.

It also doesn't mean that we shouldn't. As I said, Rawls didn't publish about animal rights as best I know. But nothing in his original position prohibits us from extending the thought experiment that way. It doesn't raise any problems that are absent in the original version. (In particular, I don't know what it's like to be a human born with a brain of mush any more than what it's like to be a bat.) And it's an obvious and straightforward adaptation of Rawls's framework to the problem we're trying to address. So why not adapt it?
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 01:27 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
This argument doesn't address the problem. It evades it by using the term "category" as a weasel word: Comatose humans have rights because they are "in the same category" as noncomatose humans. Who placed them in the same category, and by what standard? By contrast, nonhuman animals have no rights because they are not in the same category as human animals. Again, who placed them in a different category, and by what ethically-relevant standard? How is your argument from categories any more than fancy-worded question begging?

As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities. Humans are included in the category because they're humans. It's not begging the question to say that moral rules apply to humans, just as baseball rules apply to baseball players, even though they might sit on the bench the entire game. Show me a dog or a horse that lives by a moral code and I might be inclined to change my position. Until then, it's simply nonsense to speak of morality outside of the human context.

Thomas wrote:
There you go again, failing to distinguish between the claims "X is not an axiom within logical system S" and "X is not a true proposition within logical system S".

Well, I'm not sure what that has to do with anything. But that doesn't change the fact that there are no "rights" in a utilitarian system -- at least not in the sense that most people understand the term. If you, however, want to define "right" as "a rule that has proved to be generally utile," then go ahead. Just be aware that you're using it in that fashion.

Thomas wrote:
I am making the same comparison between humans, and the obvious result is that a human has 100% of a human's rights.

Rights? What are these things you call "rights?"

Thomas wrote:
But then, maybe I don't understand what you're asking. I don't see how the relative weight of rights would ever be relevant if there was no conflict between different entities' rights.

I'll make it simple. I say "you only have 87% of my rights because you only have 87% of my capacity to suffer." My guess is that you'd dispute that, because you think you have the capacity to suffer as much as you can, and you don't understand why any lack of capacity on your part should affect your moral standing in the world. And I imagine Rover and Fluffy would have a similar reaction.

Thomas wrote:
No I haven't. I also haven't asked that question to any comatose patients, or any humans with severe mental handicaps. Why should that stop me from recognizing that comatose patients and the mentally handicapped should have rights?

You tell me. You haven't stated whether you would accord any moral standing to comatose patients.

Thomas wrote:
Then maybe I'm mistaken in my factual assumptions about trees. The same problem occurs, at some point, in every ethical system. In this case as in others, I'll just do the best I can: make my best guess and take the risk of guessing wrongly.

It's particularly problematic for any ethical system that includes non-humans. We can, after all, make some pretty informed guesses about what humans are like. Utilitarianism, remember, is built on nothing but assumptions about human desires.

Thomas wrote:
It also doesn't mean that we shouldn't.

Well, if you want to avoid absurdities, you might want to reconsider.
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 04:21 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities.

Alright, then we have a fundamental disagreement on what moral rules are for. Although I agree that moral rules are made for humans to live by (where "humans" is shorthand for self-aware, rational beings), I disagree that they are made exclusively for the benefit of humans. When a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of their purported gods, these are nevertheless moral rules. Likewise, when a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of animals, or of "the environment", they are nevertheless moral rules. Wrong-headed perhaps, but moral rules nevertheless.

joefromchicago wrote:
Rights? What are these things you call "rights?"

To me, a "right" is an individual's claim against a society of self-aware, conscious beings that is worth enforcing consistently, given the total happiness and suffering caused by enforcing it consistently.

joefromchicago wrote:
I'll make it simple. I say "you only have 87% of my rights because you only have 87% of my capacity to suffer." My guess is that you'd dispute that, because you think you have the capacity to suffer as much as you can, and you don't understand why any lack of capacity on your part should affect your moral standing in the world.

As a matter of ethical theory, I accept that, assuming you had sufficient evidence to establish your greater capacity to suffer. But as a matter of ethical practice, you don't have evidence to support it, so I'll stick with the rebuttable presumption that your capacity to suffer is equal to mine.

joefromchicago wrote:
And I imagine Rover and Fluffy would have a similar reaction.

That is without a doubt an argument that their happiness and suffering should count the same as that of humans---as opposed to the, say, 1% they're getting under current law. But your position seems to be that it shouldn't count at all. How does your imagination support your position?

Thomas wrote:
I also haven't asked that question to any comatose patients, or any humans with severe mental handicaps. Why should that stop me from recognizing that comatose patients and the mentally handicapped should have rights?

joefromchicago wrote:
You tell me. You haven't stated whether you would accord any moral standing to comatose patients.

I would---but only because most humans in our society would foolishly freak out about the prospect that doctors might kill them if they should become comatose. In other words, if Terri Shiavo's doctors had shot her in the head, I think they would have wronged millions of non-comatose Americans, but they wouldn't have wronged Terri Shiavo.

joefromchicago wrote:
We can, after all, make some pretty informed guesses about what humans are like.

You are way more optimistic on that point than I am. My own guesses, especially the ones about what women are like, turn out to be notoriously ill-informed.
Thomas
 
  2  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 04:30 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities.

Alright, then we have a fundamental disagreement on what moral rules are for. Although I agree that moral rules are made for humans to live by (where "humans" is shorthand for self-aware, rational beings), I disagree that they are made exclusively for the benefit of humans. When a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of their purported gods, these are nevertheless moral rules. Likewise, when a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of animals, or of "the environment", they are nevertheless moral rules. Wrong-headed perhaps, but moral rules nevertheless.

joefromchicago wrote:
Rights? What are these things you call "rights?"

To me, a "right" is an individual's claim against a society of self-aware, conscious beings that is worth enforcing consistently, given the total happiness and suffering caused by enforcing it consistently.

joefromchicago wrote:
I'll make it simple. I say "you only have 87% of my rights because you only have 87% of my capacity to suffer." My guess is that you'd dispute that, because you think you have the capacity to suffer as much as you can, and you don't understand why any lack of capacity on your part should affect your moral standing in the world.

As a matter of ethical theory, I accept that, assuming you had sufficient evidence to establish your greater capacity to suffer. But as a matter of ethical practice, you don't have evidence to support it, so I'll stick with the rebuttable presumption that your capacity to suffer is equal to mine.

joefromchicago wrote:
And I imagine Rover and Fluffy would have a similar reaction.

That is without a doubt an argument that their happiness and suffering should count the same as that of humans---as opposed to the, say, 1% they're getting under current law. But your position seems to be that it shouldn't count at all. How does your imagination support your position?

Thomas wrote:
I also haven't asked that question to any comatose patients, or any humans with severe mental handicaps. Why should that stop me from recognizing that comatose patients and the mentally handicapped should have rights?

joefromchicago wrote:
You tell me. You haven't stated whether you would accord any moral standing to comatose patients.

I would---if only because most humans in our society would foolishly freak out about the prospect that doctors might kill them if they should become comatose. In other words, if Terri Shiavo's doctors had shot her in the head, I think they would have wronged millions of non-comatose Americans, but they wouldn't have wronged Terri Shiavo.

joefromchicago wrote:
We can, after all, make some pretty informed guesses about what humans are like.

You are way more optimistic on that point than I am. My own guesses, especially the ones about what women are like, turn out to be notoriously ill-informed.
0 Replies
 
bigstew
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 04:45 pm
@joefromchicago,
This thread is really distracting me from work that I have to finish, but the debate is good so I'll try and make this brief as well.

Quote:
Don't kid yourself. Of course you're presupposing some sort of ethical theory. You're presupposing morality, so you have to have some sort of theory. You may not know which one, but have one.


Your right, but I only am trying to suppose an ethical theory at a general level. I think all ethical theories (no matter which one you a re a proponent of) must be interpreted in a manner that animals ought to fall within the scope of morality. That is my focus here. How they fall in (that is do they obtain direct, or indirect standing) is a matter of argument. Deontologists might, for example, recognize the avoidance of pain as a fundamental value (a reason for a things well being), and we ought, as a rule, not act in a way (without good reason) that does not accord with this rule.

Quote:
Why are "interests" morally significant?


Because some interests are necessary for a things well being. Without them you suffer. I think most people would agree that the avoidance of pain is a fact that most value. How that value is interpreted in an ethical manner depends on what theory you propose.

Quote:
Liberty is necessary for morality? Really?


Yeah I realized right away I goofed on that one, and couldn't re phrase myself afterwards (caught up in the frantic pace of trying to reply). My point was to raise the question: why do we attribute such strong values to these legal rights? Though I was thinking of liberty as a legal right, the content of that right (I think though you may disagree) has in part a moral nature. VERY generally, if liberty is synonomous with auntonomy, and auntonomy has to do with being able to further one's interests (or choices if you want to stick with humans), and since interests are morally siognificant, then liberty must have at least a minimal moral component to it. The right is derived from the value we place on one being able to further their interests.

Quote:
Just because you haven't found a good argument to distinguish a comatose human from a dog doesn't mean there aren't any.


And does this not aply to you? What persuasive arguments have you put forth that reasonbly rejects the similarities between the two? Does it even look like a good one is to be made, considering the strong reasons we have for believing that similarities exist between the two? I have yet to see anything that comes close to doubting those reasons.

Quote:
No doubt. But then we also have an interest in liberty (as you point out above), yet we own animals without any moral compunction. How do you explain that discrepancy?


I don`t see how owing a domestic pet inpinges the interests of an animal, if that pet`s interests are properly taken into account. A non domestic animal is a different case, considering it has interests which are quite different from a domestic cat or dog.

Quote:
You're confused. That's not about animal's rights, that's about human obligations.


This is where we part. We have duties to animals, because we accord them with basic rights. You might think this is nonsense animals lack duties, but like I`ve mentioned before, extending rights to an object of moral concern need not require it has the capacity to acknowledge duty. This is too high of a standard, given marginal cases.
bigstew
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 05:09 pm
@joefromchicago,
Quote:
No, not really. As I've pointed out, from a utilitarian perspective, it's utile to have a rule protecting infants and the cognitively impaired because to do otherwise would set a bad example. A Rawlsian would approach it from the original position and arrive at the same end. A Kantian would say that one cannot adopt a rule allowing some people to be killed without willing the end of all prohibitions against murder.


Quote:
Not necessarily. See above.


But are these good arguments?

(1) the utiltarian ex is an indirect example. Lighting a cat on fire is wrong only because of the psychological effects it may have on the public, but if done in private, it shouldn`t matter. That doesn`t make much sense.

(2) The Rawlsian still begs the question, why humans, but not animals?

(3) Same, why do humans obtain moral personhood but not animals? (of course rationality=will is going to do the work here)

Quote:
Who defines those interests?


We do, as a matter of normative discussion, of course.

Quote:
No doubt you've consulted the animals about their interests before making this statement.


Why must one "consult" with animals? Do I need to hear my cat say "yes" when I ask whether it would rather not be electrocuted? Can`t we rationally agree that similarities which exist between animals and humans are sufficient enough reasons to claim similar interests exist between the two?
bigstew
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 05:12 pm
@joefromchicago,
Quote:
Why is it contestable? According to you, if an animal has interests, then those interests are morally significant. Who gets to decide whose interests are important and whose are not?


Well we just need to keep on deliberating to make sure don`t we?

0 Replies
 
bigstew
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 05:13 pm
@joefromchicago,
Quote:
That's debatable.


Tell us why then, and if it is persuasive enough, then we should accept your argument shouldn`t we?
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 07:44 pm
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:

joefromchicago wrote:
As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities.

Alright, then we have a fundamental disagreement on what moral rules are for. Although I agree that moral rules are made for humans to live by (where "humans" is shorthand for self-aware, rational beings), I disagree that they are made exclusively for the benefit of humans.

Two entirely different things. I have no problem with moral rules that benefit animals, but those rules impose human obligations, they don't recognize animal rights.

Thomas wrote:
When a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of their purported gods, these are nevertheless moral rules. Likewise, when a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of animals, or of "the environment", they are nevertheless moral rules. Wrong-headed perhaps, but moral rules nevertheless.

Apples and oranges.

Thomas wrote:
To me, a "right" is an individual's claim against a society of self-aware, conscious beings that is worth enforcing consistently, given the total happiness and suffering caused by enforcing it consistently.

Yeah, just like I said: it's a rule that is generally regarded as utile. Your "claim against society," therefore, is contingent on the rule continuing to be utile. In other words, it's a right until something better comes along.

Thomas wrote:
As a matter of ethical theory, I accept that, assuming you had sufficient evidence to establish your greater capacity to suffer. But as a matter of ethical practice, you don't have evidence to support it, so I'll stick with the rebuttable presumption that your capacity to suffer is equal to mine.

You can't be serious. You've already stated that you have a higher capacity to suffer than non-human animals. I'm not sure how you can arrive at that conclusion, but there you are. Why you can't take the additional step in assuming that two humans can have different capacities to suffer is beyond me. Your imagination is clearly better than that. After all, you can imagine being born a tree.

Thomas wrote:
That is without a doubt an argument that their happiness and suffering should count the same as that of humans---as opposed to the, say, 1% they're getting under current law. But your position seems to be that it shouldn't count at all. How does your imagination support your position?

My position doesn't recognize an animal's capacity to suffer as being morally significant. Remember? That's your position, not mine.

Thomas wrote:
I would---but only because most humans in our society would foolishly freak out about the prospect that doctors might kill them if they should become comatose.

That's fine. A perfectly acceptable utilitarian justification.

Thomas wrote:
In other words, if Terri Shiavo's doctors had shot her in the head, I think they would have wronged millions of non-comatose Americans, but they wouldn't have wronged Terri Shiavo.

Say what??? That doesn't follow from your previous sentence. Are you sure you have that right?

Thomas wrote:
You are way more optimistic on that point than I am. My own guesses, especially the ones about what women are like, turn out to be notoriously ill-informed.

Utilitarians constantly make guesses about what people want and what they don't want. If that's way too optimistic, then I'm surprised anyone would be a utilitarian.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 07:59 pm
@bigstew,
bigstew wrote:
Your right, but I only am trying to suppose an ethical theory at a general level. I think all ethical theories (no matter which one you a re a proponent of) must be interpreted in a manner that animals ought to fall within the scope of morality.

I don't know how you arrive at that conclusion. But even if every system of morality includes animals within their scope, so what? That might just mean that they're all wrong.

Thomas wrote:
Because some interests are necessary for a things well being. Without them you suffer. I think most people would agree that the avoidance of pain is a fact that most value. How that value is interpreted in an ethical manner depends on what theory you propose.

Indeed, most people don't like to suffer. But whether suffering has any moral significance remains an open question. You can't just assume that, because most people prefer not to suffer, there's any moral significance in the avoidance of suffering.

Thomas wrote:
VERY generally, if liberty is synonomous with auntonomy, and auntonomy has to do with being able to further one's interests (or choices if you want to stick with humans), and since interests are morally siognificant, then liberty must have at least a minimal moral component to it. The right is derived from the value we place on one being able to further their interests.

I don't have any problems with that, but you can't talk about rights (in a moral sense) without committing to some kind of right-based system of morality. Otherwise you're just talking a bunch of nonsense.

Thomas wrote:
Quote:
Just because you haven't found a good argument to distinguish a comatose human from a dog doesn't mean there aren't any.


And does this not aply to you? What persuasive arguments have you put forth that reasonbly rejects the similarities between the two?

I gave three arguments: utilitarian, Rawlsian, and Kantian. If you don't like any of those, that's fine. I don't agree with all of them either. But don't pretend that I didn't provide any arguments.

Thomas wrote:
I don`t see how owing a domestic pet slave inpinges the interests of an animal individual, if that pet`s person's interests are properly taken into account.

Sorry, I got distracted by something.

Thomas wrote:
A non domestic animal is a different case, considering it has interests which are quite different from a domestic cat or dog.

No doubt you've consulted diverse animals in arriving at your conclusion.

Thomas wrote:
This is where we part. We have duties to animals, because we accord them with basic rights.

You use this word "we." I do not think it means what you think it means.

Thomas wrote:
You might think this is nonsense animals lack duties, but like I`ve mentioned before, extending rights to an object of moral concern need not require it has the capacity to acknowledge duty. This is too high of a standard, given marginal cases.

Too high a standard? You haven't articulated any standard.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 08:05 pm
@bigstew,
bigstew wrote:
But are these good arguments?

That depends. On what basis do you evaluate them?

Thomas wrote:
We do, as a matter of normative discussion, of course.

You want animals to have rights, but only those rights that we decide they should have? How are those "rights?"

Thomas wrote:
Why must one "consult" with animals? Do I need to hear my cat say "yes" when I ask whether it would rather not be electrocuted?

You do if you plan on electrocuting your cat and you think it has rights.

Thomas wrote:
Can`t we rationally agree that similarities which exist between animals and humans are sufficient enough reasons to claim similar interests exist between the two?

Sure. But that still doesn't mean that animals have rights that we are obligated to respect.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Wed 2 Mar, 2011 08:11 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:
Yeah, just like I said: it's a rule that is generally regarded as utile. Your "claim against society," therefore, is contingent on the rule continuing to be utile. In other words, it's a right until something better comes along.

I don't think that's distinctive of my position. Once upon a time, you yourself may have taken a similarly-changing position on the property rights of slave owners, or on the right of husbands to control their wives. If you had lived in the 19th century, you may well have believed in those rights. Then something better came along---the idea of race and gender equality---so you may have given up on them. That's how moral rules change, and for the most part it's a good thing, too.

joefromchicago wrote:
Why you can't take the additional step in assuming that two humans can have different capacities to suffer is beyond me.

That's hyperbole, not counterargument. I just told you that I can take this additional step---but I won't actually take it unless you present persuasive evidence that two particular humans do indeed have different capacities to suffer.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
In other words, if Terri Shiavo's doctors had shot her in the head, I think they would have wronged millions of non-comatose Americans, but they wouldn't have wronged Terri Shiavo.

Say what??? That doesn't follow from your previous sentence. Are you sure you have that right?

Fair enough. If it helps resolve the confusion, replace "wronged" with "caused suffering to". The legal right not to be killed belongs to Terri Shiavo. The utility of that right, which justifies its existence and enforcement, accrues to non-comatose Americans who might find themselves in Shiavo's position.
failures art
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 06:59 am
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:

Well, there's one characteristic that humans possess and that non-human animals lack: humanity.

What is the significance of humanity in moral standing? You seem to assert this in a way that you would reject something like interest or suffering being asserted.

joefromchicago wrote:

That's not about animal's rights, that's about human obligations.

If we can assert our own authority our right to live, then why can't the same authority (our) assert other being's right to live? Also, in what way would you accept another being asserting it's own right to live? It seems you want this on human terms exclusively.

Which returns me to the above question, what does being human have to do with morality?

A
R
T
failures art
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 07:31 am
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:

As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities.

The moral rules you choose to observe, yes.

joefromchicago wrote:

Humans are included in the category because they're humans.

Can't we do better than that?

joefromchicago wrote:

It's not begging the question to say that moral rules apply to humans, just as baseball rules apply to baseball players, even though they might sit on the bench the entire game.

And if a football player enters the game, they are still protected by baseball rules right?

joefromchicago wrote:

Show me a dog or a horse that lives by a moral code and I might be inclined to change my position.

What kinds of behaviors would you accept? If I said that an animal protecting it's offspring or one of its pack was an example, it's not hard to imagine a reply to the extent that this is mere animal instinct. If so, then is it also a non-moral that a human would protect its offspring or another human? Is it then, just animal instinct?

joefromchicago wrote:

Until then, it's simply nonsense to speak of morality outside of the human context.

I think Thomas made a good point about this:
Thomas wrote:
I disagree that they are made exclusively for the benefit of humans. When a culture postulates moral rules that hurt humans to serve the benefit of their purported gods, these are nevertheless moral rules.

Doing an action based non-humans (read: gods) is no less a moral rule. Why exclude doing an action based on other non-humans?

A
R
T
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 09:05 am
@joefromchicago,
I see that I also mistakenly attributed someone's quotations to somebody else. Obviously, in my reply to bigstew's posts, I wasn't replying to Thomas, I was replying to bigstew. My apologies to all concerned.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 09:14 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
I don't think that's distinctive of my position. Once upon a time, you yourself may have taken a similarly-changing position on the property rights of slave owners, or on the right of husbands to control their wives. If you had lived in the 19th century, you may well have believed in those rights. Then something better came along---the idea of race and gender equality---so you may have given up on them. That's how moral rules change, and for the most part it's a good thing, too.

No, that's not how rules change. Rules change because people become convinced that the old rules are wrong, not that they're correct but less advantageous than some other rule.

Thomas wrote:
That's hyperbole, not counterargument. I just told you that I can take this additional step---but I won't actually take it unless you present persuasive evidence that two particular humans do indeed have different capacities to suffer.

That didn't stop you from asserting that humans are more capable of suffering than non-human animals. But if you want to hide behind this transparent dodge, far be it from me to stop you. It's a flaw in your argument, not mine.

Thomas wrote:
Fair enough. If it helps resolve the confusion, replace "wronged" with "caused suffering to". The legal right not to be killed belongs to Terri Shiavo. The utility of that right, which justifies its existence and enforcement, accrues to non-comatose Americans who might find themselves in Shiavo's position.

The notion that, by killing Schiavo, the doctors would have wronged everyone else sounds awfully Kantian to me. I can't get my head around the notion that, for a utilitarian, a wrong against person A becomes a wrong against everyone else, just because that wrongful act violated a utilitarian rule. A Kantian would be fine with that. A utilitarian -- not so much.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 09:18 am
@failures art,
failures art wrote:
What is the significance of humanity in moral standing? You seem to assert this in a way that you would reject something like interest or suffering being asserted.

Humanity is important because only humans are capable of acting morally.

failures art wrote:
If we can assert our own authority our right to live, then why can't the same authority (our) assert other being's right to live? Also, in what way would you accept another being asserting it's own right to live? It seems you want this on human terms exclusively.

I have no problem with person A asserting that person B has a right to live. That's because it makes sense to talk about humans having rights. In contrast, it makes no sense to talk about non-human animals having rights. So yes, I see morality exclusively in human terms. Those are the only terms in which morality makes sense.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 09:31 am
@failures art,
failures art wrote:

joefromchicago wrote:

As I've said before, moral rules are made for human communities.

The moral rules you choose to observe, yes.

Is that what you think morality is? Just the rules that you choose to observe?

failures art wrote:
Can't we do better than that?

You tell me.

failures art wrote:
And if a football player enters the game, they are still protected by baseball rules right?

That depends on which game he is trying to play.

failures art wrote:
What kinds of behaviors would you accept? If I said that an animal protecting it's offspring or one of its pack was an example, it's not hard to imagine a reply to the extent that this is mere animal instinct. If so, then is it also a non-moral that a human would protect its offspring or another human? Is it then, just animal instinct?

If an animal had a sense of right and wrong and acted on a moral obligation, then I'd be persuaded that it was a moral agent. For instance, if a cat refrained from killing a mouse because it believed that killing mice was wrong, that would convince me.

failures art wrote:
I think Thomas made a good point about this:

Figures.
0 Replies
 
failures art
 
  1  
Reply Thu 3 Mar, 2011 02:03 pm
@joefromchicago,
joefromchicago wrote:

failures art wrote:
What is the significance of humanity in moral standing? You seem to assert this in a way that you would reject something like interest or suffering being asserted.

Humanity is important because only humans are capable of acting morally.

failures art wrote:
If we can assert our own authority our right to live, then why can't the same authority (our) assert other being's right to live? Also, in what way would you accept another being asserting it's own right to live? It seems you want this on human terms exclusively.

I have no problem with person A asserting that person B has a right to live. That's because it makes sense to talk about humans having rights. In contrast, it makes no sense to talk about non-human animals having rights. So yes, I see morality exclusively in human terms. Those are the only terms in which morality makes sense.

Argumentum ad because you say so
R
T
 

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