Mathematical truth is not the same thing as empirical truth. The latter involves predictions, such that an empirical statement is true if and only if the experiences that it predicts come to pass. However, mathematical statements, being a subset of 'analytical statements,' are true if and only if they agree with other predesignated statements.
In essence, math is merely the analysis of descriptions. It is a procedure where nothing more is said than A = A. This means that mathematical calculations are simply an attempt to find out if two entities, functions, quantities or relations are the same. If they turn out to be the same, we call that equation "true," meaning the two things are the same thing. If they turn out to be different, then we call that equation "false," meaning the two things are not the same thing.
All of mathematics comes down to this art of answering the one simple question "are these two things the same?" in all those instances where the two things concerned can be described with zero ambiguity. If they cannot be so described, the problem cannot be addressed mathematically, unless the ambiguity itself is unambiguous, in which case we can only use statistics to do the figuring. Failing that, all that remains is ordinary language, and the inevitable errors of ambiguity inherent in it.
Therefore, I would be obliged if you could enlighten me on the Truth/lies question.
Whilst your answer is without a doubt correct, I am having great difficulty in understanding what relevance the second man has.
"You encounter two members of a tribe who tell the truth 25% of the time. One makes a statement, and the second says it's true. What is the probability that the first statement is true?"
For example, suppose there had been only one man who told the truth half of the time.
Would it be fair to assume that there was a 50:50 chance of the truth?
Now, what difference would it make if 10 other men gave an opinion?
Take the same point with a fair coin heads/tails. Would it make any difference if 1000 people said the next flip was going to be tails?
No, the odds would stubbornly remain at 50:50.
Perhaps you can enlighten me, as it would appear I have misplaced my brain.

Thanking you in advance.