Mark:
SERIES
a) N^2
This is the sequence of square numbers. It may be written like this:
12, 22, 32, 42, 52,
and it continues
12, 22, 32, 42, 52,62, 72, 82,
which is the same as
1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, ...
b) N!
These are factorials. A factorial of a number is the product of all the postitive integers from 1 to the given number. The factorial of 3, which is written 3!, is 1 * 2 * 3 = 6. 4! = 1 * 2 * 3 * 4 = 24. Our series of factorial may be written as
1!, 2!, 3!, 4 !, 5!, 6!, ...
and we may continue it:
1!, 2!, 3!, 4 !, 5!, 6!, 7!, 8!, 9! ...
which equals
1, 2, 6, 24, 120, 720, 5040, 40320, 362880,...
Factorials get very big very quickly.
FLYING
Longer
Many people immediately answer that the flying time is the same. (But not Mark) What you lose because of a headwind in one direction should be the same as what you gain due to a tailwind on the return trip. But if you do the calculations, you'll see that this isn't the case.
With no wind, the round trip will take 4 hours: 1600 kilometers at 800 kilometers per hour means the trip is two hours each way.
With a 200 kph headwind, the ground speed is 600 kph. The time it takes to cover 1600 km is
1600 km / 600 kph = 2.67 hours or 2 hours and 40 minutes
In the other direction the ground speed is 1000 kph so the time it takes to go 1600 km is
1600 km / 1000 kph = 1.67 h, or 1 hour and 40 minutes
The total travel time is 4 hours and 20 minutes.
Let's say that the wind speed is increased to 400 kph. Then the ground speed with a tailwind is 1200 kph, and the travel time in that direction is
1600 km / 1200 kph = 1.33 h or 1 hour and 20 minutes
In the other direction the ground speed is 400 kph so the travel time is
1600 km / 400 kph = 4 hours.
The total travel time is 5 hours and 20 minutes. This is an hour longer than with the wind at 200 kph.
TARGET
43
7 AND 8
952
ALPHA CLUB
15
TRIPLES
8
N
12
Rap:
Series
a) 1,4,9,16,25,36,
,n^2
b) 1,2,3,24,120,720,5040,
..,n!
Flying over Pyrenees
D=(Va+Vw)to
D=(Va-Vw)tb
2D=(Va+Vw)to+(Va-Vw)tb=Vato+Vatb+Vw(to-tb)
and
Vave=2D/(to+tb)= [Vato+Vatb+Vw(to-tb)]/(to+tb)
dVave/dVw=0=(to-tb)/(to+tb)
so Vave is max when to=tb and Vw=0
so if there is any wind speed correction (Vw) it will take longer.
Rings
A+B=23
B+C=33
A+C=30
2A+2B+2C=86
A+B+C=43
3 digit Divisible number
n=m*7*8
and n<1000
1000/(7*8)=17.86
.
so m=17
n=17*7*8=952
Alpha Club
240/(n-1)=240/n+1
so
n^2-n-240=0
(n-16)(n+15)=0
n=16 or n=-15
negative numbers do not make sanity check so
n=16
so the number of eligible members is n-1=15 (each gets $16)
*Go with the $15*
Triple Sums of 10
Including 0 as counting number
(0,1,9)(0,2,8)(0,3,7)(0.4.6)(0,5,5) 5
(1,1,8)(1,2,7)(1,3,5)(1,4,5) 4
(2,2,6)(2,3,5)(2,4,4,) 3
(3,4,3) 1
5+4+3+1=13
13 with 0 as counting #
8 if zero is not counting #
Number
N/3=N-8
N=3N-24
2N=24
N=12
Rap wrote, "I rode the bike (see avatar) down along the Tug Valley Today---didn't see any sign of the Hatfield/McCoy Feud."
You lucky thang, they have good bass in the Tug river. Did you see Williamson's "Coal House"?
As fur them feudin, don't cross into Pike County. You have been warned!
"No sign of Randall McCoy's grave."
If memory serves, he dun survived the feud. Still I reckon iffin he deed, he would be deed by now.
"Us hillbillies have to take our boots off when ciphering numbers greater than 10."
I never did meet no redneck who could cipher nothing other than ?'moonshine'
Juice Part 2 Answer (sorta like Mark's)
If you have only two cans of juice, the probability of getting them both wrong is the same as the probability of getting them both right. This is because there are only two possible arrangements:
apple orange /orange apple
One is all right. The other is wrong.
With 3 flavors there are 6 possible arrangements:
Let's say that the first one is correct. Then there are 2 arrangements that are all wrong:
orange grape apple /grape orange apple
The other arrangements have one can in the correct place and the other two wrong. So the probability of guessing all wrong is 2 / 6 or 1 / 3.
In general, the question is: Given any sequence of n distinct objects, in how many ways can those objects be rearranged so that none of the objects is in its original position? This is known as the number of "derangements" of n, denoted by D(n). Another term for the number of derangements is the subfactorial denoted !n.
D(1)= !1 = 0 and D(2)=!2 = 1
One way (not the most efficient) of determining the value of D(n) for any given n is by means of the inclusion/exclusion principle. For example, with n=5 we begin with 5! possible re-arrangements, but of those we know that 4! leave the first object unmoved, and 4! leave the 2nd object unmoved, and so on. Thus there are 5*4! that leave one specific object unmoved, so we have to subtract this number. However, in doing so we have subtracted some of the arrangements twice, because some of them leave both the 1st AND the 2nd element unchanged (for example). So we need to add back the number of arrangements that leave any two of the objects unmoved, of which there are C(5,2)*3! (There's an explanation of what C means at the bottom of this page.) But then we need to subtract the number of arrangements that leave THREE objects unmoved, and so on. The final result is
D(5) = 1*5! - 5*4! + 10*3! - 10*2! + 5*1! - 1*0!
= 44
In general we have
n j / n \
D(n)= SUM (-1) ( ) (n-j)!
j=0 \ j /
If we examine the effect of multiplying each term of this sum by n+1, we see that the value of D(n) can be computed from the value of D(n-1) by the recurrence formula
D(n) = n D(n-1) + (-1)^n
The first several values of D(n) for n=1,2,3,... are
0, 1, 2, 9, 44, 265, 1854, 14833, ...
The Encyclopedia of Integer Sequences (Sloane & Plouffe) lists the values up to D(17), and also notes the exponential generating function
1 inf x^n
--------- = SUM D(n) ---
(1-x) e^x n=0 n!
C(5,2) means the number of possible combinations of two elements at a time selected from five elements.
.. 5!
C(5,2) = ------
..2! * 3!
. n!
C(n,k) = ------
..k! * (n-k)!
A cube has six faces, each a square. So far so good.
How many different patterns of six squares are there that can be folded into a cube
I bet you never expected that question!
Version 1
A spider is climbing slowly up a wall. After one hour it is half way to the top. After one more hour it covers half the remaining distance so it is 3/4 of the way to the top. In the next hour it again covers half the remaining distance and is now 7/8 of the way to the top. If this pattern continues, how long will it take the spider to reach the top of the wall
Version 2
Now suppose that the spider again climbs half way to the top in the first hour. But it then covers half the remaining distance in half an hour and is 3/4 of the way to the top in 1 1/2 hours. Then it covers half of the remaining distance in 15 minutes. Again, continuing the pattern, how long will it take to reach the top
What is ½ + .1/2 + 1/.2 =