Reply Sat 10 Jul, 2010 04:28 pm
@Night Ripper,
Night Ripper wrote:
A state is a monopoly on the initiation of violence over a geographical region.

It does not have to be; the state is a monopoly on force over a geographical region. Force is not always initiation of violence, as you illustrated in your example about the bank taking your house, there can be legitimate uses of force. The state can be an umpire, an entity with a monopoly on force in order to enforce contracts and property rights.
0 Replies

Related Topics

How can we be sure? - Discussion by Raishu-tensho
Proof of nonexistence of free will - Discussion by litewave
morals and ethics, how are they different? - Question by existential potential
Destroy My Belief System, Please! - Discussion by Thomas
Star Wars in Philosophy. - Discussion by Logicus
Existence of Everything. - Discussion by Logicus
Is it better to be feared or loved? - Discussion by Black King
Copyright © 2021 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 12/03/2021 at 11:07:57