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Definition of Reality

 
 
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 02:02 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127102 wrote:
You keep talking about people saying "I know". We began by talking about people knowing (whether or not they say they know). Which are we talking about? I can say I know without knowing, and I can know without saying I know. I don't have to believe I know in order to know. But I suppose when I say I know, I am suggesting I do know. Otherwise saying I know would be misleading. But please do separate knowing from saying (or claiming) one knows. They are quite different.


... the original question was whether or not it is even logically possible to attribute knowledge to oneself under the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief ... and the way it's looking is that one cannot say "I know" when "know" is defined as justified true belief without being misleading ... as people say "I know" all the time, the implication is that when they say it they are using the word in one of its dictionary definitions (and not the technical definition as justified true belief) ...
TickTockMan
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 02:06 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127102 wrote:
But please do separate knowing from saying (or claiming) one knows. They are quite different.


I don't know why this is such a slippery thing for some to understand. Anyone who has a hard time grasping the difference between saying one knows versus knowing should shadow me at work some day.

My boss often says he knows that he told me to do something a particular way. He is certain he is right, and believes I am wrong when I tell him that he told me to do something exactly the way I did it.

When I produce his note, in his handwriting, confirming that he did indeed tell me to do something a particular way, which I did, he tells me I should have known what he meant and done it the other way.

I have no particular point with this anecdote. Just a real life example of the misunderstandings and resultant frustrations that can arise when people fail to make the distinction between claiming to know, and knowing.

Sorry for the intrusion in your conversation.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 02:06 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127107 wrote:
... the original question was whether or not it is even logically possible to attribute knowledge to oneself under the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief ... and the way it's looking is that one cannot say "I know" when "know" is defined as justified true belief without being misleading ... as people say "I know" all the time, the implication is that when they say it they are using the word in one of its dictionary definitions (and not the technical definition as justified true belief) ...


Once again, whether one can say I know is one thing. Whether one knows is a different thing. (One cannot say one knows is one is struck dumb. But what has that to do with the issue?) You are mixing up two issues. Claiming to know, and knowing. I may know all kinds of things I cannot claim to know because I don't believe I know them. So what?
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 02:31 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127110 wrote:
Once again, whether one can say I know is one thing. Whether one knows is a different thing. (One cannot say one knows is one is struck dumb. But what has that to do with the issue?) You are mixing up two issues. Claiming to know, and knowing. I may know all kinds of things I cannot claim to know because I don't believe I know them. So what?


... I can't see that I'm mixing anything up because I have simply been exploring the logical implications that the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief has on the claim "I know" ... as the technical definition appears to render the claim "I know" misleading, and assuming most people do not intend to be misleading, the implication is that when most people say "I know" they are not using "know" in the technical sense of justified true belief, but rather in one of the dictionary definitions (such as "to perceive directly" or "to be acquainted or familiar with") ...
Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 02:48 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127107 wrote:
... the original question was whether or not it is even logically possible to attribute knowledge to oneself under the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief ...


I've always felt that the word "true" was unnecessary. Why not just "justified belief?" Isn't "true" just an adjective we use for justified belief?
Are there cases where truth is not founded upon justification? (Excepting tautology.)
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 03:05 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;127117 wrote:
I've always felt that the word "true" was unnecessary. Why not just "justified belief?" Isn't "true" just an adjective we use for justified belief?


... as a practical definition, this suits me as well ... but there's a lot of philosophical theory grounded in the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief - for example, it provides a direct theoretical link between knowledge and truth ...
Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 03:11 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127120 wrote:
... as a practical definition, this suits me as well ... but there's a lot of philosophical theory grounded in the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief - for example, it provides a direct theoretical link between knowledge and truth ...


Thanks. If you care to elaborate, I'm all ears.
0 Replies
 
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 03:15 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127105 wrote:
If science has not answered "why is their gravity" it is because it has not discovered a universal field theory, and not because science only describes, but does not explain. Science does both describe and explain. For instance, science tells us not only how water freezes (the molecules move more slowly) but why it freezes (how lowering the temperature affects the movement of the molecules). It is one of those false platitudes that science describes, but does not explain, but that it is philosophy that answers the why questions. Philosophy and science do not answer the same kinds of questions.


... but then, why is there a universal field? Smile ... but you're right - science can answer those why questions pertaining to things that are not first principles (but rather derivatives thereof) ...

---------- Post added 02-11-2010 at 02:20 PM ----------

Reconstructo;127103 wrote:
Is science itself founded upon "first science"?


... to that, I don't have an answer ... if reductionism is true, then the first principles of physics are the "first science"; if not, then the first principles of physics may not be the only first principles of science ...

---------- Post added 02-11-2010 at 02:24 PM ----------

Reconstructo;127122 wrote:
Thanks. If you care to elaborate, I'm all ears.


... do I look like someone who wants to make themselves even more of a target for Ken T. Epistemologist?! ... I'll leave the elaboration to him Smile ...

EDIT: I will say one thing, however - it's interesting to think about what happens to "justified true belief" when you start monkeying around with the different theoretical definitions of "truth"! Truth (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 03:34 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127112 wrote:
... I can't see that I'm mixing anything up because I have simply been exploring the logical implications that the technical definition of "know" as justified true belief has on the claim "I know" ... as the technical definition appears to render the claim "I know" misleading, and assuming most people do not intend to be misleading, the implication is that when most people say "I know" they are not using "know" in the technical sense of justified true belief, but rather in one of the dictionary definitions (such as "to perceive directly" or "to be acquainted or familiar with") ...


What has that to do with whether people have to know they know in order to know in any sense of the word "know"? Where does any definition of "know" tell you that? One does not have to know that he "perceives directly" in order to perceive directly. And no one has to know that he is "acquainted or familiar with" in order to be acquainted or familiar with. I don't have to know that anything is true in order for it to be true, and that includes whether I know. That is because although knowledge implies truth, truth does not imply knowledge.
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 04:13 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127131 wrote:
What has that to do with whether people have to know they know in order to know in any sense of the word "know"? Where does any definition of "know" tell you that? One does not have to know that he "perceives directly" in order to perceive directly. And no one has to know that he is "acquainted or familiar with" in order to be acquainted or familiar with. I don't have to know that anything is true in order for it to be true, and that includes whether I know. That is because although knowledge implies truth, truth does not imply knowledge.


... let's see if an example helps ... let's take the sentence "I know the sky is blue" ... now let's expand "know" with two of its definitions, "to perceive directly" and "justified true belief":

1) I have directly perceived that the sky is blue.

2) My belief that the sky is blue is justified and true.

... now, the first does not invoke the notions of belief, justification, nor truth, but merely perception, and thus doesn't seem to be controversial ... on the other hand, the second appears to assert that I am in possession of truth (because I have not qualified it with "I think that ...") and would thus be misleading ... given that people go around saying "I know" all the time (and not "I think I know"), which do you think is closer to what people mean in common conversation? ... (to refresh your memory, this all started with me saying that Kant was using "know" in a more common meaning than the technical one of justified true belief, to which you replied that you thought the technical definition was the common meaning - that's all this dead horse is about) ...
MMP2506
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 04:25 pm
@TickTockMan,
TickTockMan;127076 wrote:
No. What did I say that has led you to wonder this?


Because if you insist that the cliff exists in the reality of the blind people in the thought experiment, then that is what you are essentially claiming.

What we consider reality is based upon what little empirical knowledge we've discovered. What we don't understand can't possibly exist in our reality, but that doesn't mean it can't exist in someone else's. Just as the blind people, we are blind to certain possibilities of reality in which we may never fully understand.

To say that a necessary reality exists in itself would make the claim that you are all knowing, and that your reality is the only reality.

No one can make this claim, therefore, what is real is contingent upon different perspectives concerning what is possible.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 04:26 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127138 wrote:
... let's see if an example helps ... let's take the sentence "I know the sky is blue" ... now let's expand "know" with two of its definitions, "to perceive directly" and "justified true belief":

1) I have directly perceived that the sky is blue.

2) My belief that the sky is blue is justified and true.

... now, the first does not invoke the notions of belief, justification, nor truth, but merely perception, and thus doesn't seem to be controversial ... on the other hand, the second appears to assert that I am in possession of truth (because I have not qualified it with "I think that ...") and would thus be misleading ... given that people go around saying "I know" all the time (and not "I think I know"), which do you think is closer to what people mean in common conversation? ... (to refresh your memory, this all started with me saying that Kant was using "know" in a more common meaning than the technical one of justified true belief, to which you replied that you thought the technical definition was the common meaning - that's all this dead horse is about) ...


I am sorry, I have lost what it is you are arguing for. Is it that sometimes people don't use "know" to mean TJB? They don't. There is carnal knowledge. By the way, a person who claims to perceive that the sky is blue does (so far as I can tell) claim that it is true that the sky is blue. Not that it makes much difference. People usually talk about a controversy as "beating a dead horse" when they have run out of arguments. But now, I no longer know what it is you are arguing.
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 04:31 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127143 wrote:
Is it that sometimes people don't use "know" to mean TJB?


... who but an epistemologist ever does? ...
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 05:33 pm
@housby,
We know the sky is blue because our brain constructs the image on the basis of sensations recieved by the retina and categorises the light waves accordingly.

Whatever we know is construed, created, composed, or composited in this way. And we can ask ourselves, 'how do we know that we know? How do we know the real from the apparent?'

Here is an answer from the viewpoint of the Advaita philosophy.

The knower that composes all of these phenomena can never be the object of knowledge as per the Brihadaranyaka Upanisad:

Quote:
"He is never seen, but is the Seer; He is never heard, but is the Hearer; He is never thought of, but is the Thinker; He is never known, but is the Knower. There is no other seer than He, there is no other hearer than He, there is no other thinker than He, there is no other knower than He. He is your Self, the Inner Controller, the Immortal. Everything else but Him is perishable." (Brihadaranyaka Upanishad 3:7:23)

Our nature is consciousness, so we are solely witnesses of all that is spread out around us as relative existence. Seeing it, we find ourselves "in" the ever-changing drama and begin to think that we are a part of it. Unfortunately, the seer begins to think he is the seen. And since we live in this dream along with billions of other dreamers who, like us, cannot perceive their real nature, we are told by all those voices that we are the ever-shifting patterns of light and shadow, that there is nothing but the shadow-plays in which our consciousness is immersed. So how could we be other than confused?


In the traditional wisdom teachings, the aim is always to disentangle and transcend your false identification.
Source
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 05:43 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127146 wrote:
... who but an epistemologist ever does? ...


You have switched you position so many times, that I wonder whether you can keep up with it. I suppose you can't. It is that well known argumentative technique known as, wriggling. When you have a conclusion about knowing you wish to state, and then discuss, let me know.
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 06:09 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;127159 wrote:
You have switched you position so many times, that I wonder whether you can keep up with it. I suppose you can't. It is that well known argumentative technique known as, wriggling. When you have a conclusion about knowing you wish to state, and then discuss, let me know.


... if you think I have been switching my position around, you're as mistaken as you were when you kept accusing Houseby over and over of saying things he had not ... to wrap things up:

1) Even after having been introduced to the JTB model of knowledge, I personally do not think of JTB when I say "I know" (I only think of the more practical JB)
2) You yourself are constantly having to debate the meaning of the word "know" on this forum, indicating that many philosophically minded people aren't even aware of JTB (let alone think it when they use the word "know")
3) Webster's dictionary doesn't mention "justified true belief" as one of the definitions of "know" (not even as a philosophy-specific footnote)
4) Logically, saying "I know" is misleading for anyone who is using the technical definition of "know" as JTB, which implies that most people do not mean JTB when they say "I know"

... so to reiterate, it seems that no-one but an epistimologist ever uses "know" in the technical sense of JTB.
TickTockMan
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 06:09 pm
@MMP2506,
MMP2506;127142 wrote:
Because if you insist that the cliff exists in the reality of the blind people in the thought experiment, then that is what you are essentially claiming.

So what are the blind people falling off of then?

MMP2506;127142 wrote:
What we consider reality is based upon what little empirical knowledge we've discovered. What we don't understand can't possibly exist in our reality, but that doesn't mean it can't exist in someone else's. Just as the blind people, we are blind to certain possibilities of reality in which we may never fully understand.

Primitive man had no understanding of how the solar system operated, or that he was living on something called a "planet." Didn't they still exist in his reality? Or did it exist, but in someone else's reality. This is what you seem to be saying. Something about individual realities. Or something. Frankly, I'm having a hard time understanding what you are saying.

As far as I know, no one really understands black holes, but apparently something with the characteristics we would associate with black holes exist, don't they?

MMP2506;127142 wrote:
To say that a necessary reality exists in itself would make the claim that you are all knowing, and that your reality is the only reality.

No one can make this claim, therefore, what is real is contingent upon different perspectives concerning what is possible.
Again, you seem to be talking about numerous concurrent versions of reality somehow existing side by side and working together in some ways, but not in other ways.

None of these things, by the way, are claims I have made.

If, however, you are claiming that reality is contingent on what is possible, you'll get no argument from me.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 06:17 pm
@paulhanke,
paulhanke;127166 wrote:
... if you think I have been switching my position around, you're as mistaken as you were when you kept accusing Houseby over and over of saying things he had not ... to wrap things up:

1) Even after having been introduced to the JTB model of knowledge, I personally do not think of JTB when I say "I know" (I only think of the more practical JB)
2) You yourself are constantly having to debate the meaning of the word "know" on this forum, indicating that many philosophically minded people aren't even aware of JTB (let alone think it when they use the word "know")
3) Webster's dictionary doesn't mention "justified true belief" as one of the definitions of "know" (not even as a philosophy-specific footnote)
4) Logically, saying "I know" is misleading for anyone who is using the technical definition of "know" as JTB, which implies that most people do not mean JTB when they say "I know"

... so to reiterate, who but an epistimologist ever uses "know" in the technical sense of JTB?


What was all this stuff about having to know that you know in order to know (or claim that you know) then? Anyway, it was that view I disagreed with. People do not mean by "know" justified belief since even if they have justified belief, and discover that what they claimed to know was not true, they no longer claim to have known. They admit they did not know in the first place. Therefore, no one means only justified belief when they claim to know. Have you an objection to that argument? If so, what?

Once again, what is the conclusion of your argument? And what are your reasons for that conclusion?

There are a lot of causes people may disagree with the view that JTB are necessary conditions of knowledge. 1. They do not understand it; 2. they think they have an objection to it, but it is a bad objection; 3. they just disagree with it for no particular reason.
0 Replies
 
MMP2506
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 06:37 pm
@TickTockMan,
TickTockMan;127167 wrote:
So what are the blind people falling off of then?


Primitive man had no understanding of how the solar system operated, or that he was living on something called a "planet." Didn't they still exist in his reality? Or did it exist, but in someone else's reality. This is what you seem to be saying. Something about individual realities. Or something. Frankly, I'm having a hard time understanding what you are saying.
.


They would have no idea what they were falling off of.

If primitive man did not have the word planet, nor the concept of planet, then planets could not have existed to them.

Just as in our world, time machines don't exist. However, in some point in the future, reality could change, and time machines could be invented. In that case time machines would exist, and time travel, which is currently impossible, would become possible.

It seems like a rather basic concept in my opinion.
paulhanke
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Feb, 2010 06:54 pm
@MMP2506,
MMP2506;127173 wrote:
It seems like a rather basic concept in my opinion.


... I think what Tock (or is it Tick? Smile) is taking exception to may only be a result of your word choice ... for example in "if you insist that the cliff exists in the reality of the blind people", it can be construed that you are saying that Reality is precisely the perception of the blind people ... if that's not what you mean, then perhaps a phrasing such as "if you insist that the cliff exists in the perceived reality of the blind people" might help ...
0 Replies
 
 

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