xris
 
  1  
Reply Sat 5 Dec, 2009 02:46 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;108351 wrote:
Then how can you disagree?
I disagree with you and have told you why , so have others. I just dont see that its worthy of so many posts. I understand what your saying and it goes beyond the accepted meaning. If you want to take it further your on a difficult mission, mission impossible.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 5 Dec, 2009 03:27 pm
@Camerama,
Camerama;108408 wrote:
Why are we even discussing physical evil, in a philosophy forum, under the branch of philosophy of religion? Pain or suffering as the standard of evil equates evils, because suffering is subjective. I was speaking morally i don't understand why you were speaking physically. You cannot empirically measure suffering, therefore making it the standard or barometer of evil is useless. You have tied evil to linguistics, when the concept, in itself, transcends language. I dont see the relevance


Because the OP asked this asked this question:

In the thread, "Why Does God Permit Evil?" there have been definitions bandied about in a very general way about what constitutes "evil".

Therefore, I'm putting the question to the public soapbox.

How do you define "evil"?


So it is clear that the context was supposed to be the problem of evil, which is the problem of why God permits evil. Now, the evil that God permits does not include only moral evil, but also what you call, "physical evil". Both moral evil and "physical evil" are bad, which is to say, are evils. And the question would then include not only why God permits wars or murders, but why God permits deadly disease, or earthquakes, which maim and kill hundreds of people when they occur.

The supposed answer to the question, why does God permit moral evil, evil caused by people, is free will (whether that answer is a good answer is another question). But then there is the question, why does God permit the pain and suffering caused by disease, and earthquakes, and other natural disasters (or as the insurance companies call them, "acts of God"). And, obviously, the answer to that question cannot be that they are caused by people. So the free will defense cannot be an answer to that question (not even a bad answer).

So that is why we are discussing "physical evils". Not, of course, that man-caused evil does not cause physical evil too. It does.

---------- Post added 12-05-2009 at 04:33 PM ----------

xris;108416 wrote:
I disagree with you and have told you why , so have others. I just dont see that its worthy of so many posts. I understand what your saying and it goes beyond the accepted meaning. If you want to take it further your on a difficult mission, mission impossible.


Please see post #82. What accepted meaning of "evil" does it go beyond? Did you read the excerpt I posted twice from the Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy* which confirms what I have written. What is your evidence that I have "gone beyond the accepted meaning"?

*In The Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy (second edition, p. 699) we find:

"Two kinds of evil can be distinguished. Moral evil inheres in the wicked actions of moral agents, and the bad consequences they produce. And example is torturing the innocent. ...Natural evilsare bad consequences that apparently derive entirely derive from the operations of impersonal natural forces, for example human and animal suffering produced by natural catastrophes such as earthquakes and epidemics....".
0 Replies
 
Camerama
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 10:03 am
@IntoTheLight,
Okay, and you slap the label of "evils" on natural disasters. I think that is an overreaching extension of the word. I think suffering as a basis for "physical" evils is irrational. That is what i believe and for my own reasons. You have accepted a different philosophy
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 10:19 am
@Camerama,
Camerama;108537 wrote:
Okay, and you slap the label of "evils" on natural disasters. I think that is an overreaching extension of the word. I think suffering as a basis for "physical" evils is irrational. That is what i believe and for my own reasons. You have accepted a different philosophy


But what is your evidence that, "that is an overreaching extension of the word" (whatever that means)? Anyway, as you can see, that is how philosophers and theologians have traditionally used the term, "evil" when discussing the question, "why does God permit evil". You may have a different context in mind. Isn't physical suffering a physical evil, just as mental suffering is a mental evil? If not, then what else is it?
0 Replies
 
Camerama
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:30 pm
@IntoTheLight,
It is suffering, it is suffering and only suffering. What i don't like is that you define evil by suffering. Suffering is the product of evil, not the essence. Evil is in the act, not the result. Suffering is not evil, what brought about the suffering is, though not exclusively or unconditionally, evil.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:33 pm
@Camerama,
Camerama;108548 wrote:
It is suffering, it is suffering and only suffering. What i don't like is that you define evil by suffering. Suffering is the product of evil, not the essence. Evil is in the act, not the result. Suffering is not evil, what brought about the suffering is, though not exclusively or unconditionally, evil.


I agree with you that this isn't the most common usage of "evil". But, that said, there is such a thing as natural evil, as shown by the excerpt kennethamy just posted. If you wish to argue that the term "natural evil" doesn't exist, then I'd say that's a pretty difficult task. Because, after some research, I see that many philosophers have, and do, use the term.

We're arguing about nothing here.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:38 pm
@Camerama,
Camerama;108548 wrote:
It is suffering, it is suffering and only suffering. What i don't like is that you define evil by suffering. Suffering is the product of evil, not the essence. Evil is in the act, not the result. Suffering is not evil, what brought about the suffering is, though not exclusively or unconditionally, evil.


If someone says that typhoons are evil, what they mean is that typhoons cause suffering and pain, and those are evils. So, we can say that what causes evils, is itself, an evil. But what causes evils need not be an intentional being. It may be a typhoon. But still, suffering and pain are, themselves, evils, aren't they?
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:42 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;108552 wrote:
If someone says that typhoons are evil, what they mean is that typhoons cause suffering and pain, and those are evils. So, we can say that what causes evils, is itself, an evil. But what causes evils need not be an intentional being. It may be a typhoon. But still, suffering and pain are, themselves, evils, aren't they?


The term "evil" is so ingrained in the notion of morality in this day and age, you will not get the response you're looking for. I can tell you right now that no one I know, albeit those who critically think on a regular basis, use "evil" in application to all things which induce suffering and pain. It is held exclusively in reference to human morality.

You're right that the term "natural evil" exists, and some do use the term "evil" in application to much more than human morality. But, at the same time, you must also realize many do not. You should see this by now, considering this is like the 8th person in this thread who has questioned your usage of "evil".
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:46 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;108549 wrote:
I agree with you that this isn't the most common usage of "evil". But, that said, there is such a thing as natural evil, as shown by the excerpt kennethamy just posted. If you wish to argue that the term "natural evil" doesn't exist, then I'd say that's a pretty difficult task. Because, after some research, I see that many philosophers have, and do, use the term.

We're arguing about nothing here.


I don't think that nowadays the term "evil" or "an evil" is used very much at all except tongue in cheek. Or in comic books. The great exceptions in the last two decades was President Reagan's calling the USSR "the evil empire" (and that came from a cartoon movie, "Star Wars") and then there was President Bush's, "The Axis of Evil" in his State of the Union speech. Of course, in both cases, they were talking about nations. Are nations intentional beings? Sort of, I guess.

Of course, the OP question is asked in the philosophical context of the problem of evil, and on a forum devoted to philosophy. So, it was natural for me (and I would have thought others) to think of the notion of evil in a philosophical context. It may be that some people on this board are familiar with the term, "evil" only in a religious context where is may be confined to intentional or moral evil. Of course, from the fact that it is confined to that, it doesn't follow that it is what it commonly means. What it commonly means is reported by dictionaries. But someone might look the word up in a Catholic dictionary or encyclopedia and see what is said there about the term. I suppose that would be available in the internet.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 12:50 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;108554 wrote:
I don't think that nowadays the term "evil" or "an evil" is used very much at all except tongue in cheek. Or in comic books. The great exceptions in the last two decades was President Reagan's calling the USSR "the evil empire" (and that came from a cartoon movie, "Star Wars") and then there was President Bush's, "The Axis of Evil" in his State of the Union speech. Of course, in both cases, they were talking about nations. Are nations intentional beings? Sort of, I guess.


Perhaps you do not hang around any sort of religious crowd then. The Catholics I hang with use the term all the time. Even those non-religious I know still use the term "evil" when they believe a person has done something horribly wrong - they'll generally curse and then say, "He's just evil!". I've heard this quite a few times.

But maybe I'm just exposed to a small minority who still uses the term.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:02 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;108555 wrote:
Perhaps you do not hang around any sort of religious crowd then. The Catholics I hang with use the term all the time. Even those non-religious I know still use the term "evil" when they believe a person has done something horribly wrong - they'll generally curse and then say, "He's just evil!". I've heard this quite a few times.

But maybe I'm just exposed to a small minority who still uses the term.


Yes, I have heard that too, or rather my wife reported she heard it about a sister office worker from another office worker. But I wonder even that isn't said, tongue in cheek, just to emphasize how bad the person is thought to be. I don't hear children or teens use it (they may not even be sure what the word means) and if they don't use it, it is hard to argue that it is in common use. It may, as you say suggest, only be in the idiolect of Catholics (of a certain age). That would not, of course make it a part of common speech.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:05 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;108556 wrote:
Yes, I have heard that too, or rather my wife reported she heard it about a sister office worker from another office worker. But I wonder even that isn't said, tongue in cheek, just to emphasize how bad the person is thought to be. I don't hear children or teens use it (they may not even be sure what the word means) and if they don't use it, it is hard to argue that it is in common use. It may, as you say suggest, only be in the idiolect of Catholics (of a certain age). That would not, of course make it a part of common speech.


But what makes you think that it is not a part of common language?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:12 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;108557 wrote:
But what makes you think that it is not a part of common language?


What I said is that if it is only part of an idiolect, then it is not a part of common language. I think that is a tautology.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:16 pm
@kennethamy,
I know what you just said. But you also said:

Quote:
I don't think that nowadays the term "evil" or "an evil" is used very much at all except tongue in cheek.


So, this led me to believe you thought the term "evil" isn't part of common language. And, if this is what you meant, then I'm asking why you think such a thing. If this wasn't what you meant, nevermind, I misunderstood.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:21 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;108560 wrote:
I know what you just said. But you also said:



So, this led me to believe you thought the term "evil" isn't part of common language. And, if this is what you meant, then I'm asking why you think such a thing. If this wasn't what you meant, nevermind, I misunderstood.


An idiolect is (by definition) a way of speaking confined only to a part of the speakers of a language. And, if this restricted use of the term, "evil" is (as you agree) part of an idiolect (namely the idiolect of Catholics of a certain age) then it follows that this restricted use of the term, "evil" which you describe, is not a part of common English.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:24 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;108561 wrote:
An idiolect is (by definition) a way of speaking confined only to a part of the speakers of a language. And, if this restricted use of the term, "evil" is (as you agree) part of an idiolect (namely the idiolect of Catholics of a certain age), then in follows that this restricted use of the term, "evil" which to describe, is not a part of common English.


I never agreed to any of that. I simply stated that the Catholic friends I know use the term. This does not carry the implication that "evil" is part of an idiolect. For it could be that my Catholic friends use the term and it also be a part of common language. It may be part of an idiolect, but I do not know. I was asking why you thought "evil" was part of an idiolect prior to seeing any of my text (if you do in fact believe it is part of an idiolect).
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 01:33 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;108563 wrote:
I never agreed to any of that. I simply stated that the Catholic friends I know use the term. This does not carry the implication that "evil" is part of an idiolect. For it could be that my Catholic friends use the term and it also be a part of common language. It may be part of an idiolect, but I do not know. I was asking why you thought "evil" was part of an idiolect prior to seeing any of my text (if you do in fact believe it is part of an idiolect).


As I also said, I have not observed children or teenagers using the term "evil" and they are a pretty good measure of common speech. Of course, from the fact that you have observed your Catholic friends using the term "evil", it does not follow that only your Catholic friends use the term. But have you observed many of your non-Catholic friends using the term (except tongue in cheek)? Of course, we are both talking in the dark here, because what would be needed is a study to get statistical evidence. And I doubt there is one.
0 Replies
 
Camerama
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 03:48 pm
@IntoTheLight,
vernacular and colloquials becoming an issue now?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Dec, 2009 06:02 pm
@Camerama,
Camerama;108597 wrote:
vernacular and colloquials becoming an issue now?


Not that I can see.
0 Replies
 
 

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