@Jebediah,
Jebediah;167867 wrote:But there are many why questions in science. Science is in the business of answering "why" questions (why does the sun shine, why does the earth go around it, etc). It just doesn't go for the ultimate why questions (why does the force of gravity exist, etc).
So, why do people feel like they must have some sort of answer for the ultimate why questions? What's wrong with mystery?
Yes, there is that funny belief that science answers only "how" questions, but not "why" questions. Taken literally, that is not true, since as you point out, science is in the business of providing explanations not just descriptions. Theoretical science especially. But what turns out the be meant by the slogan that science answers only "how" questions and not "why" questions is that science does not answer a
particular type of why question, namely one that inquires into
purpose. Science, they are saying, does not inquire into
purpose. It can explain the "mechanism" by which X causes Y, but science cannot tell us the
purpose for X causing Y. Science can tell us why planets orbit the Sun in ellipses rather than circles. It is because of the gravitation attraction of the Sun on the planets. That is fine. But science cannot tell us what is the
purpose of planets orbiting in ellipses rather than circles. And that is what is meant by saying that science answer how but not why questions. What is meant is that science cannot answer question about
purpose. And that is true, Save for the science of people (and perhaps animals) science cannot answer what is the purpose of planets moving in elliptical orbits around the Sun. But now the question that must arise is why it is that science does not even address that question, let alone answer it. Is it because the answer to the question will forever be concealed by science? Or is the answer rather that the question
itself is inappropriate? There is no answer because there is no question. And why is there no question? Because the question assumes something for which there is no evidence, and thus, there is no reason to believe it is true. And what is that assumption? Obviously, that natural laws have a purpose which we can discover. Which brings us back to the distinction between prescriptive and descriptive laws. Prescriptive laws, man-made laws, have a purpose (or so one hopes!). But what reason is there to think that descriptive laws have a purpose? Only, it would seem that both are called, "laws". But that is a slim reed upon which to base a philosophy. Why are they both called "laws"? There are obviously causes that jeeprs has indicated. The idea that natural laws are like man-made laws is a pre-enlightenment notion, as jeeprs says. Where there is a law, there is a law-giver, is an assumption fueled by a theological perspective on the world. It was Galileo who finally pried the "why" of cause from the "why" of purpose (not that a purpose cannot also be a cause, but that is another story).