@xris,
xris;123482 wrote:...greed will always attain its ends without government controls.
The fact is that 'greed,' as you call it, has attained its ends WITH government controls. Furthermore, it would have been impossible for greed to attain many of its specific ends WITHOUT government 'controls' (i.e. interventions in the economy). For example, how could wallstreet/city-of-london have made the enormous profits speculating in the recent housing boom without: 1) the Fed and BoE (government granted monopolies on the creation of credit) artificially depressing interest rates and expanding the money supply, 2) the 'government-sponsored enterprises' in the U.S. creating a market for sub-prime and other mortgage-backed securities, 3) the inherent moral hazard in the very existence of the Fed and Boe as 'lenders of last resort?' Answer: they couldn't have.
Economic manipulation via reckless speculation can occur in a free market of course, but when such unsound practices lead to disaster, as they always do, a free markets will purge the system of the people responsible. Those people won't be in business any longer when they bankrupt themselves.
In a free market system, wealth will tend to accumulate in an upper class, but the membership of that class will be constantly in motion, as enterprises boom and bust. That is an expression fo growth and prosperity. On the other hand, in a 'socialist' (read: corporatist) system, wealth will also tend to accumulate in an upper class, but the periodic interventions of the government will ensure that the membership fo that class remains static, regardless of the increasing corruption and incompetance of the people in question. That is an expression of a parasitic arrangement that causes decay and stagnation.
Quote:But there are no safe guards for this system
What are the safe guards in an ideal socialistic system?
Government regulation to prevent corporations from doing the reckless things that cause economic disasters? What prevents those corporations from manipulating the government and preventing those regulations from being enforced? Note that this is exactly what has happened...the regulations either aren't enforced at all or are selectively enforced to to hurt the less well-connected competition.
Or maybe the existence of a government institution to maintain 'price stability' and 'full employment' through kenysian stimulation and to act as lender of last resort to prevent bank failures? O wait, we have that too! Those are the Fed's official mandates, and how has the central bank used those powers? To assist in the creation of asset bubbles from which private corporations benefit, and then to bail them out at public expense when the bubble bursts.
What kind of safeguards would an ideal socialist system have to prevent these problems?
On the other hand, the safeguard of a free market system is nothing other than the free market itself, which ensures that incompetance and excessive risk taking is punished with bankruptcy. Further, it prevents much of that behavior in the first plave by simply NOT allowing for fiat currency and central banking.
---------- Post added 02-10-2010 at 11:48 PM ----------
pagan;124961 wrote:the thesis in the money makers is to end the private monopoly of printing money by private and unaccountable central banks like the federal reserve, the bank of england and the world bank, and bring back fiat currencies printed by elected governments with no interest payments involved. Are you for that?
There have been very few examples of fiat currencies printed by governments, as opposed to private central banks. Mostly in history, the money has either been issued by private banks or the currency was based on hard assets, or actually was a hard asset. Given the extent to which the U.S. government and most governments in the world are controlled by a handful of corporate interests, simply abolishing the private central banks and handing their power over to those corrupt governments would accomplish little other than to create a false sense of success. Fundementally, the same interests would still control the currency, albeit in a more round-about way. Yes, there would be no more interest on the creation of currency, but that's only a small part of the game. If you despise the current monetary system and what it has done to the world, the only real solution is abandoning fiat currencies altogether and returning to a metallic standard of some kind.
The prime objection to this among Keynesians is the idea that hard currencies are somehow inflexible. Well, the value of the currency is indeed inflexible, and that's the point, but such a state of affairs in no way dampens economic growth as they suggest. It only prevents massive Keynesian stimulation of an economy via printing money, which is exactly the sort of 'growth' (read: borrowing from the future to invest resources inefficiently) that we want to avoid. Keynesian spending, possible only with fiat currencies, stimulates consumption over investment, and therefore provides short-term benefits at highly disproportionate long-term costs. This is the reason that Keynesianism is so popular with politicians (who think short-term), and one of the reasons that most western nations have deindustrialized and are verging on bankruptcy.
Along with this is the equally flawed notion that hard currencies appreciate over time, prices fall, and this leads to economic contraction. The former two statements are true, hard currencies do appreciate during periods of growth and therefore prices do fall, but why must falling prices cause economic constraction? The Keynesians have the causation backwards. Falling prices can in some cases be a sign of economic constraction, in that demand and employment are falling in a downward price-wage spiral. But this does not mean that in a period of growth falling prices would lead to such a contraction; on the contrary, falling prices create demand and drive growth.
NOTE-1: the Keynsian idea that rising prices (due to monetary inflation) drive higher employment and therefore higher demand and growth is based on fallacy - rising prices are always accommpanied by equally rising wages. In the last 30 years in the U.S., this has certainly not held; real wages have remained flat, while real prices have risen considerably. This is not surprising, given that inflation does not occur one once and equally across the economy. The people who get the money first do not see any decreased purchasing power, while those that get it last (workers) see the most loss in purchasing power.
NOTE-2: it would be interesting to apply the idea of unequally rising prices/wages to a hard currency system. If prices and wages are constantly falling, how would the rate of change for each compare? If the deflationairy dynamic was a mirror of the inflationairy dynamic, that would mean that prices would fall faster than wages fell. If that were true, that means that while the inequality of the march of inflation through an economy causes declining purchasing power, the march of
deflation through an economy would cause
rising purchasing power: i.e. prices would be falling faster than the amount of money one had to spend decreased. This would be another auto-catalytic stimulus for real economic growth.
The other, even sillier objection is that a hard currency simply does not work logistically in a world of growth, in that as the economy grows, the value of a currency unit declines, and eventually smaller economic transactions cannot be made for lack of small enough denominations of currency. As if I actually needed to explain, the solution to this 'problem' is for the government to periodically issue smaller denominations of currency; this does not entail finding more gold or silver in the world, but only reducing the number of notes in the highest denominations and creating an equivilent value of lower denomination notes. If governments in Weimar Germany, the former Yugoslavia, Zimbabwe et al can manage to add higher currency denominations every few weeks, there's no reason that a government can't issue lower denominations every few years or decades.
Another wonderful advantage of hard currencies comes to mind. When one major nation adopts a hard currency, all international trade adopts that nation's currency as the medium of exchange, due to its reliability. This is why the U.S. dollar replaced the British pound as world reserve currency after WWII, as the pound was taken off the gold standard and devalued heavily to pay war debts. International trade conducted in hard currencies precludes the possibility of sizable trade deficits and imbalances, which means that nations cannot rely on importing an excessive proportion of their goods and services unless they actually have the hard cash to do so. This might be another example of what Keynesians would call 'inflexibility.' But, as with the other instances, this inflexibility is a wonderful thing. If nations cannot rely on cheap imports purchased on credit or with printed money, then those nations don't go without - they start producing the goods and services themselves! Our modern economists hate, in principle, the idea of domestic production for domestic markets and label it as protectionism, as if that were a dirty word. No! they really hate it because it prevents the international banking housing from profiting as middlemen in transnational trade. It is both more economically efficient (i.e. less transport cost) and more conducive to real prosperity (as opposed to a debt-fueld consumption economy) for nations to produce themselves a greater proportions of what they themselves consume.
EDIT: Regarding note-1 and note-2 above, after a little thought I've come to the conclusion that the possibility explained in note-2 is probably correct. If inflation causes the increase in wages to lag that of the price of goods because it begins in the market with new demand for goods, then deflation should cause wage decreases to lag price decreases because it too begins in the market: with new
supply of goods.
---------- Post added 02-11-2010 at 12:39 AM ----------
xris;124627 wrote:I have just said they have a monopoly on the ports in France and the initial outlay for a ferry and the associated costs are too prohibitive.
I'm not sure what company you're talking about, but I imagine it's the one that runs from Dover to Calais? If so, then you might find it interesting that Calais and Dover were always state owned 'port trusts' and not private entities. Calais has in recent years been sold to a private French corporation, which is now also trying to buy the port of Dover. The proceeds of the sale, if it happens, will go directly to the British Treasury.
My point is that, if this is the ferry company you're talking about, it's monopoly is very likely a result of an exclusive relationship it had with the French and British governments that owned the two ports, not any inherent monopolistic advantage gained in the free market.; as in, those governments agreed that only this one company would be allowed to operate out of its ports.