@josh0335,
josh0335;123454 wrote:Sure, but you're not accepting the market behaviour of one seller. What are the consequences of being the only seller in the market? The article you've posted touches on the correct term - monopoly pricing. What you've been asserting so far is that monopoly pricing doesn't exist, that the threat of competition will keep prices competetive. But that would be contradictory to the fundamental principle of business i.e. profit maximisation. There is absolutely no reason for a monopoly to price competetively because of imaginary competitors. It's like you driving at 30 on a 60 road because any minute now, the government might change the speed limit to 30. It doesn't make sense. Every company, regardless of the market structure, follows the principle of optimum pricing - charging the price that will yield the highest profits.
Nice article. But I disagree with this comment: "But if the monopoly is in fact more profitable than competitive enterprises, economists expect that other entrepreneurs will enter the business to capture some of the higher returns." This is assuming competitors can enter the market. The author doesn't touch on any of the barriers to entry that exist in many monopolies. Is the assumption that government protection is the only barrier? This is completely wrong.
We're going to have to agree on the definition of compete. For there to be competition, there must be at least two participants. In a monopoly there is only one, therefore there is no competition. Whether it will remain non-competetive depends on how well the monopoly utilises economic mechanisms of barriers to entry.
---------- Post added 01-29-2010 at 03:02 PM ----------
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The Dream.
By josh0335
The dream had turned into a nightmare.
The End.
josh0335,
sorry for not responding to your whole post in specifics. It was a well written dream, and it certainly does sound logical. But that's
just not how it works. If there are two mutually exclusive theories about how the market will behave, and both sound logical, that still means one is incorrect. Lets say that one theory postulates that free markets will concentrate wealth and market shares, much due to the mechanisms you describe. The other theory postulates that in free markets, in the absence of government barriers, it is very, very hard for "rich people" to maintain their wealth and market shares against competition from below. Both theories can use wordy, logic sounding explanations for why they are accurate. They both sound logical. Yet only the one theory accurately explains what actually happens in the market. So I cannot tell you anything else than that I believe it to be an empiric fact that free markets do not behave in the way you describe in your dream. Wealth and market shares do not concentrate like that in free competition; they spread out. But I wouldn't know how to convince you of that, since both theories sound logical. I can only urge you to look up the empirical studies that prove me right, some of which I have been quoting.
But that was a side note to our main point of disagreement. Which is that you are saying that a monopoly will always have control over the market. I here use the term monopoly in the meaning of there being one seller delivering all of a product in a particular market. As I noted in
post 277, that all off a product comes from one seller isn't by itself a bad thing for the customers or how much standard of living society as a whole gets out of a limited number of resources. I hope you agree with that. (And I claim that only the 'good' kinds of monopoly happen in a free market, not the ones that can exploit.)
Thus the way you used the term monopoly, in the meaning of "a seller that is protected by barriers to entry" is of more interest in an economic discussion of market control. But since that term is confusing - and assuming something that isn't the case, as I explain in a moment - I use monopoly in the meaning 'one seller', and it's supposed effects I will describe as 'having control over the market' or 'being protected by barriers to entry'.
My point here, as was before, is that you can't assume that one seller, or anybody else, must control the market just because of his situation in the market, without some physical barrier to entry. If you can somehow show this to be the case, I concede and you 'win'. But there always needs to be some reason why competitors can't compete. Be it government barriers, that the monopoly is the only shop in a rural mountain valley, that the market simply is too small for there to be another competitor, that a competing company can't lay another rail track or telephone line, or such. Just market forces in a free market, like economies of scale, high entry cost or other costs such as high rate of failure, are not enough to insulate a producer from competitors. All these mechanisms will be changed by market forces, for example if prices go up it will be worth the risk of failure for investors to invest in getting part of the high profits.
Crudely reworded, you keep saying something in the way of "it is a monopoly, it controls the market, no competitors can compete with it, because of the barriers to entry, because it is a monopoly". You always say that these barriers to entry follow from the existence of a monopoly. I think that that is begging the question. And that's what you would have to show me that this assumption is correct. Barriers to entry are a insulated occurrence from the existence on a monopoly.
It's like saying that a boat (a monopoly) floats (is the only seller) because it doesn't sink (others can't compete). And when I say "what about boats that are too heavy to float?", you answer "you're not accepting the behavior of a boat, the behavior of a boat is that it doesn't sink".
(Where I think this comes from is that in a free market, monopolies will usually only exist with some form of artificial barrier to competitors, which might be why you assume that this is a natural attribute of a monopoly. But it's actually the other way around.)