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Proving a negative

 
 
ACB
 
  1  
Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 08:22 pm
@LWSleeth,
The crucial question is this:

If I say "Caesar sneezed....", does that imply "I know that Caesar sneezed...."?

If it does, then the statement is false. If, however, it is taken as a bare statement about Caesar, with no implication about my knowledge, then it is merely unjustified (it may be true or false).

Can we all at least agree on that?
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 10:12 pm
@ACB,
ACB wrote:
The crucial question is this:

If I say "Caesar sneezed....", does that imply "I know that Caesar sneezed...."?

If it does, then the statement is false. If, however, it is taken as a bare statement about Caesar, with no implication about my knowledge, then it is merely unjustified (it may be true or false).

Can we all at least agree on that?


Yes, we can agree on that. Indeed, if you made a bare statement of belief that Caesar sneezed while crossing the Rubicon it would simply be an unjustified belief, because there is no evidence for, or reason to, believe that he did.
Khethil
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 07:54 am
@hue-man,
I.e.: Prove to me that you never read 'War and Peace'
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 01:43 pm
@Khethil,
Khethil wrote:
I.e.: Prove to me that you never read 'War and Peace'


Hey Khethil,

I was hoping that this debate was over, but here we go. First, proof is a mathematical term. The more accurate question would be - do you have evidence that you never read war and peace. Now, even though this is far from the subject of the infallibility and unverifiability of supernatural claims, I will still answer your question. The only evidence that I have never read war and peace (and I haven't) is that I know that I've never read war and peace, but I hope to in the future. That would be evidence, though it may be anecdotal.

You could also show evidence by giving me a lie detector test, or using the slightly more advanced mind reading technology that will be out soon. That would provide good evidence for whether or not I read the book. So, if your claim was to say that I never read the book, you could verify that (with evidence) in a number of ways. Henceforth, such a proposition would not be meaningless.
Khethil
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 02:26 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
I was hoping that this debate was over, but here we go.


Huh? Where'd this come from?

hue-man wrote:
First, proof is a mathematical term.


No, it actually could entail a lot; much of which has nothing to do with mathematics. What point might this serve?

hue-man wrote:
The more accurate question would be - do you have evidence that you never read war and peace.


Uh... yea, that was my point

hue-man wrote:
... I will still answer your question.


I didn't have a question

hue-man wrote:
The only evidence that I have never read war and peace (and I haven't) is that I know that I've never read war and peace, but I hope to in the future.


Well, that's good. It's actually a great book; probably moreso at the end. I found that last 20% of it wrapped up all the minutiae of the first 80% in a clever and high-impact way. I'd wholeheartedly recommend it.

hue-man wrote:
So, if your claim was to say that I never read the book, you could verify that (with evidence) in a number of ways.


I'm not exactly sure where you're coming from or going to here. What, precisely, did you take my example for? It almost sounds like you're interested in a conversation with yourself. It seems, towards one direction or another, you've read a great deal into my statement.

Umm... good luck with that Smile
ACB
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 03:05 pm
@Khethil,
Khethil wrote:
I.e.: Prove to me that you never read 'War and Peace'


Yes, that's an example of 'proving a negative', as per the title of this thread. So what was your point, Khethil?
Khethil
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 04:27 pm
@ACB,
ACB wrote:
Yes, that's an example of 'proving a negative', as per the title of this thread. So what was your point, Khethil?


No point - I saw the thread's title and I remembered this. I'm surprised at the temerity here to incite a debate. Can one not simply add a random thought without evoking such apprehension?

Somewhere along the way I've head it used as an example to illustrate the difficulty of trying to 'prove a negative'.

Cheers
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 05:19 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man wrote:
I'm going to make a few more attempts to help you guys understand me. I apologize if I seem obscure in my explanation, but I'm trying to be as clear as possible. What I am saying is that to claim that Caesar sneezed or didn't sneeze when he crossed the Rubicon are both false claims, because there is no evidence whatsoever to support such claims. I am not saying that it didn't happen. A claim is a statement of knowledge, and so I am saying that it is false to claim that he did or didn't sneeze.


Since the statements" Ceasar sneezed, and Ceasar did not sneeze must have opposite truth values, how could both be false? They cannot, for it one is true, then the other is false. They are what are called "contradictories". The statements, Caesar was tall, and Caesar was short, on the other hand are called, "contraries" because they both could be false, since Caesar might have been of medium height, and neither tall nor short. On the other hand, the claim the Caesar either did sneeze or did not sneeze, must be true, since it is an instance of the law of the excluded middle, either A is true, or A is false.
ACB
 
  1  
Reply Sun 1 Feb, 2009 06:04 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:
Since the statements" Ceasar sneezed, and Ceasar did not sneeze must have opposite truth values, how could both be false? They cannot, for it one is true, then the other is false. They are what are called "contradictories". The statements, Caesar was tall, and Caesar was short, on the other hand are called, "contraries" because they both could be false, since Caesar might have been of medium height, and neither tall nor short. On the other hand, the claim the Caesar either did sneeze or did not sneeze, must be true, since it is an instance of the law of the excluded middle, either A is true, or A is false.


Kennethamy - please see posts #81-82 above. I think these may answer your point. (If they don't, I would be interested to hear your further comments.)
LWSleeth
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 12:44 am
@ACB,
ACB;46045 wrote:
Kennethamy - please see posts #81-82 above. I think these may answer your point. (If they don't, I would be interested to hear your further comments.)


It often seems like some here want to reinvent the wheel; in this case on a question that was decided long ago by philosophers. The term "proving a negative" refers to a LOGIC FALLACY. I highlighted that with every emphasis available here hoping you all will stop debating what has been long understood.

Attempting the proof of a negative is arguing something is true because it can't be proven false. It isn't just "difficult" to prove a negative, it is impossible.

No matter what sort of spin one gives the terms--whether "verify" or "proof"--nothing is confirmed by not proving something except that you've not proven something.

A "proof" of the nature of reality is that which can be observed; a "proof" in math or logic is a tautology. So anyone who claims a proof only needs to be asked "have you or anyone observed it?" Or, if they are asserting a logic or mathematical form, then the truth of the statement must be contained in the statement/math itself as in the statement, all dogs are white, he is a dog, he therefore is white (as you can see, a logically valid statement is not necessarily true). These questions (including the fallacy of trying to prove a negative) can be settled immediately instead of going on and on about them for pages.
0 Replies
 
LWSleeth
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 10:48 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;46040 wrote:
Since the statements" Ceasar sneezed, and Ceasar did not sneeze must have opposite truth values, how could both be false? They cannot, for it one is true, then the other is false. They are what are called "contradictories". The statements, Caesar was tall, and Caesar was short, on the other hand are called, "contraries" because they both could be false, since Caesar might have been of medium height, and neither tall nor short. On the other hand, the claim the Caesar either did sneeze or did not sneeze, must be true, since it is an instance of the law of the excluded middle, either A is true, or A is false.


Your logic doesn't apply to this situation because Hue-man wasn't saying contradictories are both true and false, he was trying to say (I think anyway) that no matter what is claimed to be true, if it isn't verified with observation, then any definite statement about what happened in the past is merely guessing (i.e., no statement of fact can made about the truth or falseness of Caesar sneezing).

My main objections to his points are his attempts to argue that failing to verify or prove an incident occurred means we can conclude any statement about the incident happening is false. He is mixing the concept of verification together with the false statement definition as though they are the same thing, and they aren't.

So instead of saying it is a "false statement" to claim Caesar sneezed because we have no evidence, he should say it is an "unverified statement." That's because based on the accepted meaning of "false" it would mean in this case that someone has facts that Caesar definitely did not sneeze, and no one knows that.
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 10:59 am
@Khethil,
Khethil wrote:
Huh? Where'd this come from?



No, it actually could entail a lot; much of which has nothing to do with mathematics. What point might this serve?



Uh... yea, that was my point



I didn't have a question



Well, that's good. It's actually a great book; probably moreso at the end. I found that last 20% of it wrapped up all the minutiae of the first 80% in a clever and high-impact way. I'd wholeheartedly recommend it.



I'm not exactly sure where you're coming from or going to here. What, precisely, did you take my example for? It almost sounds like you're interested in a conversation with yourself. It seems, towards one direction or another, you've read a great deal into my statement.

Umm... good luck with that Smile


I was clarifying your statement when you used the word proof. It is more of a mathematical term, but yes, it can be used to mean conclusive evidence.

Wasn't your question, prove to me that you never read war and peace? Maybe I'm mistaken, but that sounds like a question, but maybe it was rhetorical.

Thanks for the recommendation on the book. Have you ever read other classics like Paradise Lost or The Iliad and the Odyssey? If so, what did you think of them?

I was being hypothetical when I said 'if your point was to say that I never read the book'. It was for the sake of discussion. Maybe I did read into your post a little too much, but there is no need for insults. I'm certainly not interested in a conversation with myself, as I was hoping that this discussion was over. I just thought that you were responding directly to the latter part of the debate about verifiability.
0 Replies
 
hue-man
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 11:02 am
@LWSleeth,
LWSleeth wrote:
Your logic doesn't apply to this situation because Hue-man wasn't saying contradictories are both true and false, he was trying to say (I think anyway) that no matter what is claimed to be true, if it isn't verified with observation, then any definite statement about what happened in the past is merely guessing (i.e., no statement of fact can made about the truth or falseness of Caesar sneezing).

My main objections to his points are his attempts to argue that failing to verify or prove an incident occurred means we can conclude any statement about the incident happening is false. He is mixing the concept of verification together with the false statement definition as though they are the same thing, and they aren't.

So instead of saying it is a "false statement" to claim Caesar sneezed because we have no evidence, he should say it is an "unverified statement." That's because based on the accepted meaning of "false" it would mean in this case that someone has facts that Caesar definitely did not sneeze, and no one knows that.


I'm saying that it is a false claim, and a meaningless proposition because it is unverifiable.
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 11:39 am
@hue-man,
Mathematically it is easy to prove a negative, like the concept of nothing. In fact only a few thousand years ago the concept of zero was beyond the thought of the great minds of that time,

That is why when we still used AD for a calendar the date of Christ birth was calculated back to "year one", instead of the "year naught"
LWSleeth
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 02:04 pm
@Alan McDougall,
Alan McDougall;46211 wrote:
Mathematically it is easy to prove a negative, like the concept of nothing. In fact only a few thousand years ago the concept of zero was beyond the thought of the great minds of that time,

That is why when we still used AD for a calendar the date of Christ birth was calculated back to "year one", instead of the "year naught"


Unfortunately, you are semantically confusing things, but it isn't your fault because the thread author introduced two meanings for "proving a negative" himself.

In his opening paragraph he says, "'Something' is here a set restricted only by excluding crows, such that for every set S there is a set Not-S, and vice versa, so every negative entails a positive and vice versa."

This is what you are answering I presume. But later in his opening post he states, "Consider the negative case. When it comes time to decide what to believe, if we did not assume such "unprovables" were false, we would either have to choose which unprovables to believe by some totally arbitrary means..." And then throughout the thread he seems to attempt to argue the negative proof concept, and I don't see much about the first sort of yin-yang idea at all.

Since it is the second meaning of his phrase "proving a negative" that he seems to focus on, then we should look at what it means in philosophy, specifically logic, because it has a long-accepted meaning. It only means trying to claim something is true because it can't be proven wrong (or in the reverse, that something is false because it can't be proven true). This is also known as the fallacy of argument to ignorance. I've posted a couple of sites explaining this already, but here's a very user-friendly Wikipedia listing for you:
Negative proof - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

I think mixing these two ideas only confuses further what we are trying to talk about.
0 Replies
 
LWSleeth
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 02:42 pm
@hue-man,
hue-man;46197 wrote:
I'm saying that it is a false claim and a meaningless proposition because it is unverifiable.


Well, a "false claim" and a "meaningless proposition" are two completely different concepts. Beyond that, the biggest problem is that you are making up your own meaning for a term ("false") that already has a meaning. Why do that?

I assume you want to create your own label for definite claims about reality that can't be verified. So if someone says Caesar sneezed crossing the river, but he has no evidence supporting that, then you find such statements improper. Improper how? Given your demand for evidence, it seems you are using as your standard the epistemology science relies on (and law too). In those strict disciplines, you can't say something is definitely true unless there is evidence to support your contention. So yes, it is epistemologically improper to say it if we are trying to carefully state what is known, and yes it is a "meaningless proposition" epistemologically.

However, an epistemologically improper or meaningless statement is not necessarily a false claim. My dictionary says false is "not conforming to facts or truth." The claim that Caesar sneezed crossing the river cannot be considered false because we can't verify it either way! If you say it is false, then you have committed the negative proof fallacy because you are saying if it can't be proven true it is to be considered false.

Bottom line: what you should state instead of "false" is that such claims are epistemologically improper or meaningless.
ACB
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 03:57 pm
@LWSleeth,
If I say "I know that Caesar either sneezed or did not sneeze", is that a true claim? Is it epistemologically proper? Since my knowledge of the law of the excluded middle is verifiable, can I use it to justify the claim?
LWSleeth
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 05:05 pm
@ACB,
ACB;46276 wrote:
If I say "I know that Caesar either sneezed or did not sneeze", is that a true claim? Is it epistemologically proper? Since my knowledge of the law of the excluded middle is verifiable, can I use it to justify the claim?


It is a true claim but also more or less a tautology. It isn't really epistemologically useful (except to give an example of logic to students Smile )

The search for knowledge, and understanding what produces knowledge, as well as false knowledge, is (in my opinion) the highest ideal of philosophy. Since virtually all of philosophy is reasoning about what is known or not known, the logic mechanics in one's reasoning processes are important to communicating about and sorting out what someone knows or doesn't.

You can see in this thread Hue-man attempts to reason from certain claims of knowledge. Someone claims to experience omnipresence, and he logically tries to refute that with his argument that since he hasn't experienced omnipresence, no one has.

Were we able to decide if his epistemological claim of non-knowledge is true? No, because his reasoning was improper (just because he doesn't know how to experience omnipresence doesn't mean others haven't learned how). Are we able to say because Hue-man didn't refute claims that therefore people really do experience omnipresence? Nope, because his improper reasoning doesn't mean anybody has actually experienced omnipresence.

I believe all philosophy can be characterized as epistemology reasoned (I might do a thread on that idea). If so, then it gives us a means for segregating the two main functions (knowing and the reasoning process) to better examine both what is known and what conclusions can logically be drawn from it.
ACB
 
  1  
Reply Mon 2 Feb, 2009 08:34 pm
@LWSleeth,
LWSleeth wrote:
You can see in this thread Hue-man attempts to reason from certain claims of knowledge. Someone claims to experience omnipresence, and he logically tries to refute that with his argument that since he hasn't experienced omnipresence, no one has.

Were we able to decide if his epistemological claim of non-knowledge is true? No, because his reasoning was improper (just because he doesn't know how to experience omnipresence doesn't mean others haven't learned how). Are we able to say because Hue-man didn't refute claims that therefore people really do experience omnipresence? Nope, because his improper reasoning doesn't mean anybody has actually experienced omnipresence.


Thanks for your reply. I think the difficulty about 'omnipresence' is its obscurity. (What exactly does God's 'presence' mean in an empirical sense?) Since someone who claims to have experienced it cannot fully describe it to me, I can only make a guess at its meaning, and I may guess wrong (i.e. I may misapprehend what the other person has experienced). Moreover, if I were now to experience what he/she calls omnipresence, I might not recognise it as such, so I might call it something else. We could never be sure of understanding each other.

Even among those who claim to have experienced omnipresence, there is no guarantee that they mean the same thing. So the word can have no useful public meaning. The most that anyone can say is that they have had a certain sublime experience, which they personally call 'omnipresence'.
0 Replies
 
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Tue 3 Feb, 2009 01:11 am
@hue-man,
OK ,

Do a little thought experiment.

Assume
0 Replies
 
 

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