@ACB,
ACB;46276 wrote:If I say "I know that Caesar either sneezed or did not sneeze", is that a true claim? Is it epistemologically proper? Since my knowledge of the law of the excluded middle is verifiable, can I use it to justify the claim?
It is a true claim but also more or less a tautology. It isn't really epistemologically
useful (except to give an example of logic to students
)
The search for knowledge, and understanding what produces knowledge, as well as false knowledge, is (in my opinion) the highest ideal of philosophy. Since virtually all of philosophy is reasoning about what is known or not known, the logic mechanics in one's reasoning processes are important to communicating about and sorting out what someone knows or doesn't.
You can see in this thread Hue-man attempts to reason from certain claims of knowledge. Someone claims to experience omnipresence, and he logically tries to refute that with his argument that since he hasn't experienced omnipresence, no one has.
Were we able to decide if his epistemological claim of non-knowledge is true? No, because his reasoning was improper (just because he doesn't know how to experience omnipresence doesn't mean others haven't learned how). Are we able to say because Hue-man didn't refute claims that therefore people really do experience omnipresence? Nope, because his improper reasoning doesn't mean anybody has actually experienced omnipresence.
I believe all philosophy can be characterized as
epistemology reasoned (I might do a thread on that idea). If so, then it gives us a means for segregating the two main functions (knowing and the reasoning process) to better examine both what is known and what conclusions can logically be drawn from it.