Quote:That is how it is supposed to work, all other things being equal. This, of course, begs a couple of questions:
1) How far down does the US standard of living for a population of 300 million have to go to significantly effect a decent rise in a country of 1.2 billion?
A meaningless question. It assumes the trade is between only the two countries and assumes that NOTHING but trade affects the standard of living. That is complete nonsense.
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2) What if that rise in the living standard is controlled by a centralized economic policy to the extent that the "theorized equalibrium" point is never reached? As in China.
The "theorized equalibrium" is nonsense since there is not valid theory stating such. But we do have the luxury of history to look at what happens when a centralized economic policy tries to control the standard of living, the strikes in Poland, glasnost, etc. Eventually the system will have to use force to continue to control economic policy to that extent or it will collapse. I would say it is much easier to control an agrarian economy that way than it is a manufacturing one. As Chinese abandon their farms and move to the cities in large numbers the Chinese economy is already moving more toward free market.
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3) What if the exporters fix their countrys' currency in relation to the importer's currency? (Saudi Arabia, for one)
China did that until 2005. There are some problems in pegging a currency to a single other currency. One being that it makes trading more difficult with any other countries. You have to remember that the EU is almost as large a trading partner as the US in most parts of the world.
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4) What if a group of exporters attempt to "fix prices" of their product through production quotas? (OPEC)
Sometimes it works and sometimes it doesn't. OPEC is about 40% of the world's oil production. If they reduce their production they lose market share. It's not like the other countries are restricted from increasing production.
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5) What if a poorer trading partner cannot or will not import from the richer country, thereby perpetuating the trade imbalance? (China)
Again, we have an historical example. Japan.
Eventually Japan maxed out its exports and it's economy began to stagnate.
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6) What if a country holding US IOUs prefers to use those IOUs to purchase US assets (Companies, Ports, Real Estate) rather than manufactors, food and the like? Remember assets produce cash flow which goes to the owning country.
Japan did that in the 80s. They bought a lot of US real estate. They drove up US commercial real estate prices because they were the ones buying it. Once the Japanese drove up the prices to buy it they were stuck with overpriced real estate. Markets are funny that way. If you pay more to purchase something then you can get out of it over time, you lose money.