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Why are better educated people less religious?

 
 
neologist
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 May, 2007 02:44 pm
Diest TKO wrote:
neologist wrote:
USAFHokie80 wrote:
I agree with echi. I don't understand why people claim that morality requires a diety. I do not believe in any creator and yet I am moral - for the most part. :-)
That morality is not a special possession of the believer is a point I made earlier in this thread.


Well unless there is some great incongruency between his own beliefabout himself, and the way his actions are taken/interpertated it's not an unfair statement.
I thought I said that
0 Replies
 
stlstrike3
 
  1  
Reply Sun 27 May, 2007 11:16 pm
neologist wrote:
stlstrike3 wrote:
And before you even start.... where did the "major modern translations" come from?

One the printing press was invented, whatever-the-hell of the thousands of versions of the bible were out there suddenly went into mass production.

Seems that what constitutes the "original" bible shouldn't be a matter of which one reached 500 copies first.
I have already shown the similarity of Ecclesiastes 9:5 in a few translations. Why don't you take a few citations and show us how they differ?


.... btw... I'm still waiting for your reply to the selection from Misquoting Jesus I reproduced for you.
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neologist
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 May, 2007 10:11 am
stlstrike3 wrote:
neologist wrote:
stlstrike3 wrote:
And before you even start.... where did the "major modern translations" come from?

One the printing press was invented, whatever-the-hell of the thousands of versions of the bible were out there suddenly went into mass production.

Seems that what constitutes the "original" bible shouldn't be a matter of which one reached 500 copies first.
I have already shown the similarity of Ecclesiastes 9:5 in a few translations. Why don't you take a few citations and show us how they differ?


.... btw... I'm still waiting for your reply to the selection from Misquoting Jesus I reproduced for you.
In my bible, the passage is presented with this notation:
Manuscripts xBSys omit verses 53 to chapter 8, verse 11, which read (with some variations in the various Greek texts and versions) as follows:
0 Replies
 
stlstrike3
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 May, 2007 10:28 pm
neologist wrote:
stlstrike3 wrote:
neologist wrote:
stlstrike3 wrote:
And before you even start.... where did the "major modern translations" come from?

One the printing press was invented, whatever-the-hell of the thousands of versions of the bible were out there suddenly went into mass production.

Seems that what constitutes the "original" bible shouldn't be a matter of which one reached 500 copies first.
I have already shown the similarity of Ecclesiastes 9:5 in a few translations. Why don't you take a few citations and show us how they differ?


.... btw... I'm still waiting for your reply to the selection from Misquoting Jesus I reproduced for you.
In my bible, the passage is presented with this notation:
Manuscripts xBSys omit verses 53 to chapter 8, verse 11, which read (with some variations in the various Greek texts and versions) as follows:


Uh... ok?

This is precisely my point. "With some variations".

So how do we discern the meaning of "god's word(s)" when we don't even know what words are supposed to be in the text?

I've heard lectures/homilies/sermons where they hang on SINGLE WORDS to make their point. I have actually heard preachers say, "notice the word that god uses here", as the entire basis for one of their speeches. And yet....

The fact that a lot of people don't adhere as tightly to the texts isn't a reason to brush aside the variation in biblical scriptures as a curiosity. But in fact it should lead us to the inescapable conclusion that if there were a supreme being who wanted to leave us an instruction book, that the bible is quite possibly one of the worst examples of one.
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 10:28 am
stlstrike3 wrote:
This is precisely my point. "With some variations".

So how do we discern the meaning of "god's word(s)" when we don't even know what words are supposed to be in the text?

I've heard lectures/homilies/sermons where they hang on SINGLE WORDS to make their point. I have actually heard preachers say, "notice the word that god uses here", as the entire basis for one of their speeches. And yet....


I'm afraid he nailed you to the wall with that one, Neo. The earliest complete texts are the unical texts, where all the letters are capitals, there is no punctuation, there are no spaces between words and letters. That is why the majority text movement began, to reconcile all the texts which succeeded the unical texts, and that only began within the last three hundred years.

HEISNOWHERE--could be "he is now here," or . . .

HEISNOWHERE--could be "he is nowhere." Completely different meanings. (And because all the letters are magiscule, you don't know if "he" means "he" or "He," i.e., it is not clear from the context if a mere man or a deity is referred to.)

The one thing with which i don't agree in his response is that claim that the bible is the worst example one could choose of divine revelation--they're all pretty shitty, and all Stlstrike demonstrates, once again, is that he knows almost nothing about religion other than christianity, and i suspect he knows almost nothing about history other than North American history, in a sketchy way, and vague notion of European history.

When it comes to goofy scripture, i highly recommend the Quran and the Tibetan Book of the Dead. But Hell, don't get me started . . .
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neologist
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 10:48 am
Setanta wrote:
. . .
I'm afraid he nailed you to the wall with that one, Neo. The earliest complete texts are the unical texts, where all the letters are capitals, there is no punctuation, there are no spaces between words and letters. That is why the majority text movement began, to reconcile all the texts which succeeded the unical texts, and that only began within the last three hundred years.. . .
I know that. You thought I didn't? Well you ARE fluffy!

C'mon over and lap up some coffee.
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stlstrike3
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 03:53 pm
Setanta wrote:


The one thing with which i don't agree in his response is that claim that the bible is the worst example one could choose of divine revelation--they're all pretty shitty, and all Stlstrike demonstrates, once again, is that he knows almost nothing about religion other than christianity, and i suspect he knows almost nothing about history other than North American history, in a sketchy way, and vague notion of European history.

When it comes to goofy scripture, i highly recommend the Quran and the Tibetan Book of the Dead. But Hell, don't get me started . . .


I didn't say the bible was the worst example. I said, "quote possible one of the worst".

That having been said, while I'm not a religious history scholar nor historian, I am familiar with some Koranical content as well as some of the other holy books, but just because I understand Christianity and North American history best (being raised a Catholic American) doesn't mean I'm an idiot regarding everything else. I can, after all, read.

But if I were to give a religious book the big ol' two-thumbs-down-and-poop-on-it, I'd have to vote for L. Ron Hubbard's Dianetics.
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 04:01 pm
From the point of view of those who wish to profit by fleecing the gullible, Hubbard's Dianetics is one of the niftiest, cleverest little screeds anyone ever came up. Pretty damned successful for a failed science fiction pulp author, too.
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neologist
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 04:42 pm
Apparently there exists a positive correlation between religious credulity and the wealth of the prelate.
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stlstrike3
 
  1  
Reply Tue 29 May, 2007 10:07 pm
Setanta wrote:
From the point of view of those who wish to profit by fleecing the gullible, Hubbard's Dianetics is one of the niftiest, cleverest little screeds anyone ever came up. Pretty damned successful for a failed science fiction pulp author, too.


Things like Scientology and the Flying Spaghetti Monster Gospel, in my mind, should bring into sharp focus the ridiculousness of "faith". Yet... somehow we truck on as a society unable to see that the only real difference between those creeds and Christianity are the number of people who believe it.
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Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 May, 2007 09:27 pm
The question posed on this thread is based on assumption, speculation, and biased measure.

The statement should be proven before the question of "why" should be asked.
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Eorl
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 May, 2007 10:00 pm
I like your sig line Bartikus. Lot's of people probably take comfort from that... just before they starve to death.
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stlstrike3
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 May, 2007 11:17 pm
Bartikus wrote:
The question posed on this thread is based on assumption, speculation, and biased measure.

The statement should be proven before the question of "why" should be asked.

Part of the point in starting the thread was to incite thoughts as to what kind of "proof" would put the issue to rest.

That education and religiosity have an inverse relationship is the null hypothesis.... discuss.. Smile
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neologist
 
  1  
Reply Sat 2 Jun, 2007 07:16 pm
stlstrike3 wrote:
. . . That education and religiosity have an inverse relationship is the null hypothesis.... discuss.. Smile
And the relationship between education and truth?
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 2 Jun, 2007 07:34 pm
Heard on the radio this morning that a sociologist calculated that there are from 500 million to 750 million atheists worldwide. This, he said, would make unbelievers the forth largest religio-ideological category in the world. Discuss.
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fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2007 12:27 am
Comments to some of the above.

1. The null hypothesis is the one of no relationship between "eduction" and "religiosity".

2. To call "non-believers" a "religio-idelogical category" is a misnomer because ideology is based on cohesion not dissent. However, the figures are interesting and what would be more significant is whether they were increasing.
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cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2007 09:48 am
fresco, Good point: trying to tie atheism to some religion-based belief is nonsense! As for the increasing numbers of atheists, it'll be a wonder if most religions today will survive the next century - as more scientific knowledge and information becomes available to refute most religious beliefs.
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2007 10:44 am
I hear that the number of publications on pro-atheism is on the increase in this country, probably having to do with Bush's claims to a direct, and "legitmizing," line with God.

The phrase, "religio-ideological category" was mine, a careless construction I admit. But cannot a dissident group have an ideology which both promotes their internal cohesion and justification for dissent (and division) from its larger social environment (a counter-ideology as it were)?
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neologist
 
  1  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2007 11:40 am
cicerone imposter wrote:
fresco, Good point: trying to tie atheism to some religion-based belief is nonsense! As for the increasing numbers of atheists, it'll be a wonder if most religions today will survive the next century - as more scientific knowledge and information becomes available to refute most religious beliefs.
I have often said that and the bible supports it. But not for the reasons you suggest.
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JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 3 Jun, 2007 01:55 pm
Cicerone, the advancement of Science will, no doubt, have an effect on the recruitment success of religions to the extent that religion for many people fills important gaps in our realistic knowledge. But Science can never fill all the gaps. Life is, and will always be, insecure--even with modern medicine, and we must all die--leaving room for the psychological functions served by religion. The goal for me is to remove religion from our political life as much as possible.
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