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How is it double murder? Our legal inconsistencies!

 
 
roger
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:33 pm
Exactly right, Bartikus. We simply must have written laws in a complex society. I could definately see death of a fetus being a major enhancement to the charge of aggrivated assault. Legally defining it as murder is what is so troubling. We not only need laws, we need consistant laws.
0 Replies
 
ehBeth
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:33 pm
Perhaps.
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Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:34 pm
roger wrote:
Exactly right, Bartikus. We simply must have written laws in a complex society. I could definately see death of a fetus being a major enhancement to the charge of aggrivated assault. Legally defining it as murder is what is so troubling. We not only need laws, we need consistant laws.


As of yet...we do not have them!
0 Replies
 
roger
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:37 pm
That's what I said.

<struggling manfully not to shout>

Perhaps what? I would really like your feelings on this, ehBeth.
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Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:38 pm
How can we truly protect a mother's right to choose (either way) and be consistent? Unless a mother's rights are not what we are really defending?
How ironic.

Either way...there will be a price to pay! One way or another.
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CalamityJane
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:40 pm
In extreme cases like the Scott Peterson double murder trial,
each case should be handled individually without referring
or relying on a consistant law, that might not apply to such
horrendous crimes.
0 Replies
 
Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:41 pm
CalamityJane wrote:
In extreme cases like the Scott Peterson double murder trial,
each case should be handled individually without referring
or relying on a consistant law, that might not apply to such
horrendous crimes.


Which crimes are horrendous to you?
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ehBeth
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:42 pm
ah - my perhaps was to Bartikus' post prior to yours, roger.

<I think. I'm still having trouble with the scrolling and wonky vision tonight>
0 Replies
 
CalamityJane
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:43 pm
Bartikus wrote:
How can we truly protect a mother's right to choose (either way) and be consistent? Unless a mother's rights are not what we are really defending?
How ironic.

Either way...there will be a price to pay! One way or another.


That's irrelevant here. You opened a thread about murder.
A woman's right to choose is not murder.
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CalamityJane
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:45 pm
Bartikus wrote:
CalamityJane wrote:
In extreme cases like the Scott Peterson double murder trial,
each case should be handled individually without referring
or relying on a consistant law, that might not apply to such
horrendous crimes.


Which crimes are horrendous to you?


The one I mentioned in my statement Bartikus. It would be helpful
if you read a reply in its entirety beforehand.
0 Replies
 
Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 8 Dec, 2005 10:49 pm
CalamityJane wrote:
Bartikus wrote:
CalamityJane wrote:
In extreme cases like the Scott Peterson double murder trial,
each case should be handled individually without referring
or relying on a consistant law, that might not apply to such
horrendous crimes.


Which crimes are horrendous to you?


The one I mentioned in my statement Bartikus. It would be helpful
if you read a reply in its entirety beforehand.


That's irrelevant here. You opened a thread about murder.
A woman's right to choose is not murder.


Oh right....gotcha. No problem.Clear as can be. Sorry i didn't see the irrelevancy as you did! I tend to decide for myself what is relevant to me just as you apparently do for yourself thanks.

A woman's rights to choose and what defines a person some would say is relevant. If we defend a right to choose and protect the right to abortion to no ends....the other choices may suffer. Hence, putting the right to choose in jeopardy.

Throwing out the idea of consistency in law will bring other problems for all. I know these are complex issues for some but, they need to be addressed, with all due respect whether you see or are able to see the relevancy or not!

Besides, you need to reread the topic in it's entirety. It includes legal inconsistencies...which is where you mentioned a lack of relevancy....lol

CalamityJane is very befitting. lol

My challenge regarding the inconsistences stands!
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 09:31 am
roger wrote:
I would very much like it to be murder under some circumstances, and a matter of choice under others. Logically, the two views cannot be reconciled.

Sure they can. We can often do things to ourselves that would be a crime if someone did them to us without our consent. For instance, if I decided to cut off one of my fingers, that would be entirely my own business. If someone else cut off one of my fingers, however, that would be aggravated battery/mayhem. A woman has a great deal of autonomy over her own body (including any fetus she might be carrying), and she has a constitutional right to terminate her pregnancy under certain conditions. If she chooses to do so, that is her business. On the other hand, the state protects her interests against interference from others. So if someone else terminates her pregnancy against her will, that would be a criminal act.
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Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 11:44 am
joefromchicago wrote:
roger wrote:
I would very much like it to be murder under some circumstances, and a matter of choice under others. Logically, the two views cannot be reconciled.

Sure they can. We can often do things to ourselves that would be a crime if someone did them to us without our consent. For instance, if I decided to cut off one of my fingers, that would be entirely my own business. If someone else cut off one of my fingers, however, that would be aggravated battery/mayhem. A woman has a great deal of autonomy over her own body (including any fetus she might be carrying), and she has a constitutional right to terminate her pregnancy under certain conditions. If she chooses to do so, that is her business. On the other hand, the state protects her interests against interference from others. So if someone else terminates her pregnancy against her will, that would be a criminal act.


That still does not explain how the charge would ever end up as murder. Murders are committed by persons to persons. She can terminate a pregnancy because it is her body (not a seperate person) that is destroyed. If you cut my finger off you can be sure to face criminal charges but, not murder. Only people can be murdered. Only people can commit murder. It would be a criminal act for someone to intentionally cause the death of a fetus without consent of the mother.It's her body...like her leg or finger. I see no murder if I see no person who died.

This is following the logic of the pro-choice argument.

Do we wish to be able to define a fetus as a person and as a mere organism/body part? We wish to have it both ways?

If a person can be defined as an organism and an organism as a person......what does that mean for us?

Should I take your word for it that you are in fact a person or.....do I let another decide who or what you are?

Let the truth be told that even if all of mankind defined you as an organism....a person you would still be!
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 12:18 pm
Bartikus wrote:
That still does not explain how the charge would ever end up as murder. Murders are committed by persons to persons. She can terminate a pregnancy because it is her body (not a seperate person) that is destroyed. If you cut my finger off you can be sure to face criminal charges but, not murder. Only people can be murdered. Only people can commit murder. It would be a criminal act for someone to intentionally cause the death of a fetus without consent of the mother.It's her body...like her leg or finger. I see no murder if I see no person who died.

A statute can define "person" in whatever fashion it may (within the limits of the constitution). For instance, a corporation can be a "person" for purposes of entering into contracts, but it is not a "person" for purposes of many criminal laws (e.g. while a corporation can theoretically commit murder, it cannot be the victim of it). That a fetus is a "person" for the purposes of some laws and not for others is, therefore, not unusual.
0 Replies
 
Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 12:23 pm
joefromchicago wrote:
Bartikus wrote:
That still does not explain how the charge would ever end up as murder. Murders are committed by persons to persons. She can terminate a pregnancy because it is her body (not a seperate person) that is destroyed. If you cut my finger off you can be sure to face criminal charges but, not murder. Only people can be murdered. Only people can commit murder. It would be a criminal act for someone to intentionally cause the death of a fetus without consent of the mother.It's her body...like her leg or finger. I see no murder if I see no person who died.

A statute can define "person" in whatever fashion it may (within the limits of the constitution). For instance, a corporation can be a "person" for purposes of entering into contracts, but it is not a "person" for purposes of many criminal laws (e.g. while a corporation can theoretically commit murder, it cannot be the victim of it). That a fetus is a "person" for the purposes of some laws and not for others is, therefore, not unusual.


Despite your comparisons I will still regard you as a person.

That means a law can be made to consider you and yours as less than or something other than "persons". Right? With an amendment to said Constitution.

Give me one other instance where by law a person can be reduced to something other than a person! (slavery comes to mind) it would be one thing to elevate something to the title of person....but to do the reverse.

You see slaves were not elevated to the title of persons. They were persons who were reduced to slaves. They always were people with rights. It was the people who treated them as slaves that reduced themselves by not seeing or admitting to this profound truth! The slaves were people who were treated as less because other people only wanted them for their own purposes. They never thought the slaves might have a purpose to fulfill of their own. Much like a mother not wanting her own child.

Assuming of course, that you believe that being a person is the highest title to carry in that all laws and even the Constitution were written by....persons.

If being a person is not the highest and only title one can carry....I suggest we find a higher authority and let it be the author of our laws!

I guess it takes some finagling on your part to formulate an answer that seems credible. My how the time flys.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 01:58 pm
Bartikus wrote:
That means a law can be made to consider you and yours as less than or something other than "persons". Right? With an amendment to said Constitution.

That means exactly what I said: a statute can define "person" in whatever fashion it may (within the limits of the constitution).

Bartikus wrote:
Give me one other instance where by law a person can be reduced to something other than a person! (slavery comes to mind) it would be one thing to elevate something to the title of person....but to do the reverse.

I already gave you an example. Why do you need another?

Bartikus wrote:
You see slaves were not elevated to the title of persons. They were persons who were reduced to slaves. They always were people with rights. It was the people who treated them as slaves that reduced themselves by not seeing or admitting to this profound truth! The slaves were people who were treated as less because other people only wanted them for their own purposes. They never thought the slaves might have a purpose to fulfill of their own. Much like a mother not wanting her own child.

What?

Bartikus wrote:
Assuming of course, that you believe that being a person is the highest title to carry in that all laws and even the Constitution were written by....persons.

If being a person is not the highest and only title one can carry....I suggest we find a higher authority and let it be the author of our laws!

Sorry, something must be wrong with my computer today. Nothing that I read in your post is making any sense.

Bartikus wrote:
I guess it takes some finagling on your part to formulate an answer that seems credible. My how the time flys.

What the hell are you talking about?
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parados
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 02:06 pm
joefromchicago wrote:

What the hell are you talking about?


I wholeheartedly concur.
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parados
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 02:17 pm
Bartikus wrote:



This is following the logic of the pro-choice argument.

Do we wish to be able to define a fetus as a person and as a mere organism/body part? We wish to have it both ways?
You have completely misrepresented the argument. The USSC has put the line at viable. Not at "in the body of a mother" According the to the USSC court sometimes it is a fetus and at other times it is a body part. Yes. It IS both ways. Your black and white cartoon doesn't change the reality.

Quote:
If a person can be defined as an organism and an organism as a person......what does that mean for us?
It seems to mean you can't handle a concept an 11 year old should understand. A person is an organism but not all organisms are persons. Simple logic.

Quote:
Should I take your word for it that you are in fact a person or.....do I let another decide who or what you are?
So you are now arguing that an adult isn't a person? What kind of crap are you spewing?

Quote:
Let the truth be told that even if all of mankind defined you as an organism....a person you would still be!
The historical standard for personhood is birth. Locke stated we get our rights at birth. The US constitution grants citizenship based on birth. People ARE organisms, just like an oak is a tree. Because you are a member of a subset doesn't make you not a member of the set. In fact being a member of the subset REQUIRES you be a member of the set.
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Bartikus
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 02:30 pm
Bartikus wrote:
Give me one other instance where by law a person can be reduced to something other than a person! (slavery comes to mind) it would be one thing to elevate something to the title of person....but to do the reverse.

I already gave you an example. Why do you need another?

You gave me an example where a corporation can be regarded as a person. You did not give me any other example of a person being REDUCED to something other than a person....of which I asked!

One exception was slavery which is where you say "WHAT"?

Bartikus wrote:
Assuming of course, that you believe that being a person is the highest title to carry in that all laws and even the Constitution were written by....persons.

If being a person is not the highest and only title one can carry....I suggest we find a higher authority and let it be the author of our laws!

Sorry, something must be wrong with my computer today. Nothing that I read in your post is making any sense.

It's all basic logic: See men who carry the title of "person" (not slaves or organisms) wrote our laws and Constitution. If we adhere to these laws then we recognize no higher authority for a human than a "person".
We have no Kings agreed?

Quote:
Let the truth be told that even if all of mankind defined you as an organism....a person you would still be!

The historical standard for personhood is birth. Locke stated we get our rights at birth. The US constitution grants citizenship based on birth. People ARE organisms, just like an oak is a tree. Because you are a member of a subset doesn't make you not a member of the set. In fact being a member of the subset REQUIRES you be a member of the set.

For clarification: Even if all of mankind defined you as MERELY/ONLY an organism.....a person you would still be! CORRECT?
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Fri 9 Dec, 2005 02:46 pm
Bartikus wrote:



You gave me an example where a corporation can be regarded as a person. You did not give me any other example of a person being REDUCED to something other than a person....of which I asked!

One exception was slavery which is where you say "WHAT"?

You are hung up on a word that you are misusing. Slaves were still persons. They just lacked rights that their masters had. There are lots of instances of people having their rights reduced or removed. Commit a crime and see if you retain all of the rights that other persons have. Are you going to argue that capital punishment doesn't reduce a person's rights?

Quote:

If being a person is not the highest and only title one can carry....I suggest we find a higher authority and let it be the author of our laws!

Sorry, something must be wrong with my computer today. Nothing that I read in your post is making any sense.

It's all basic logic: See men who carry the title of "person" (not slaves or organisms) wrote our laws and Constitution. If we adhere to these laws then we recognize no higher authority for a human than a "person".
We have no Kings agreed?
What the hell does that have to do with the price of rice in China? It certainly has nothing to do with how specific laws define persons.
0 Replies
 
 

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