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The arguments of God's nonexistence

 
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 04:04 pm
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
If God can do it all, would there be any limitations for Him?


Like I said before, such a God cannot logically exist.


Why can't this God exist (a God with no limitations)?


A God with no limitations could cause a rock to be black and red all over, no? Is that possible? A God with no limitations could cause himself to be God and not-God all over, at the same time, and in the same sense. Is that possible? A God with no limitations could create a rock so large he couldn't lift it, thus instantiating a logically contradictory state of affairs. Is that possible? I submit not.


We'll that is the definition of a God who can do it all.


Do you accept my answer as proof that such a God cannot logically exist?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You seem to be speaking for the Bible, Implicator, changing its words and meaning.


Well, I certainly share my own perception of what the Bible is saying, just as you do.


I thought so.


So you agree that we both share our own perceptions of what the Bible is saying?


Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible states that God can do it all.


I disagree. I do not believe that the Bible, when viewed in its entirety, presents a God who can do it all, specifically because of passages such as this:

Num 23:19 (NIV) "God is not a man, that he should lie,
nor a son of man, that he should change his mind.
Does he speak and then not act?
Does he promise and not fulfill?"
What is your point here? Then if God can't lie, then He is limited, controlled by a higher power that constitute to not lying. He has limitations, therefore, He can't be God. An entity that can't do anything He wants, can't be God. God can do it all. How do you want me to take these words from His own, from the Bible, the guide for humanity salvation.

If God cannot lie, then he is not a God who can do it all.


Any comments on my scriptural support for my perception that the God of the Bible cannot just do it all?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You're just assuming that God can't do it all.


I would submit that it is you who is assuming here, not me.


You know that this argument has been studied, not just by me but by many, many phylosophers and teologies. It isn't my opinion.


It doesn't matter how many philosophers or theologians have studied the problem. Many have studied the problem and have concluded just what I have concluded. Your response is a logical fallacy - an "appeal to the crowd". Now, what about the support I give about that the Bible does not present a God who can just do it all?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Doesn't this read like a contradiction to you? God can do it all, or can't He? Which one is it?


He can't, and no, it doesn't read like a contradiction to me.


Well, God can do it all.


Why do you say that? Can you refute the passage above that states God cannot lie? Can you offer an alternative explanation of how we should interpret this verse?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
I have another question for you, Implicator. Would you become a muslim?


I doubt it.

I
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 04:07 pm
Implicator, I now understand what you meant with your example. But why include it here, what point would it clarify? The sentences are contradictory when is applied universally. The Bible has those contradictions in every emission, in every language. Since every language has these contradictions, then the Bible loses its logical meaning, and therefore, many people are skeptics.
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 04:17 pm
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
If God can do it all, would there be any limitations for Him?


Like I said before, such a God cannot logically exist.


Why can't this God exist (a God with no limitations)?


A God with no limitations could cause a rock to be black and red all over, no? Is that possible? A God with no limitations could cause himself to be God and not-God all over, at the same time, and in the same sense. Is that possible? A God with no limitations could create a rock so large he couldn't lift it, thus instantiating a logically contradictory state of affairs. Is that possible? I submit not.


We'll that is the definition of a God who can do it all.


Do you accept my answer as proof that such a God cannot logically exist?

Yes, this God can't exist. But the Bible says He does.


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You seem to be speaking for the Bible, Implicator, changing its words and meaning.


Well, I certainly share my own perception of what the Bible is saying, just as you do.


I thought so.


So you agree that we both share our own perceptions of what the Bible is saying?

Yes, I share my own perception with logical proofs. You, on the other hand, don't share it logically.

Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible states that God can do it all.


I disagree. I do not believe that the Bible, when viewed in its entirety, presents a God who can do it all, specifically because of passages such as this:

Num 23:19 (NIV) "God is not a man, that he should lie,
nor a son of man, that he should change his mind.
Does he speak and then not act?
Does he promise and not fulfill?"
What is your point here? Then if God can't lie, then He is limited, controlled by a higher power that constitute to not lying. He has limitations, therefore, He can't be God. An entity that can't do anything He wants, can't be God. God can do it all. How do you want me to take these words from His own, from the Bible, the guide for humanity salvation.

If God cannot lie, then he is not a God who can do it all.


Any comments on my scriptural support for my perception that the God of the Bible cannot just do it all?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You're just assuming that God can't do it all.


I would submit that it is you who is assuming here, not me.


You know that this argument has been studied, not just by me but by many, many phylosophers and teologies. It isn't my opinion.


It doesn't matter how many philosophers or theologians have studied the problem. Many have studied the problem and have concluded just what I have concluded. Your response is a logical fallacy - an "appeal to the crowd". Now, what about the support I give about that the Bible does not present a God who can just do it all?

if you tell me that my response is a logical fallacy, it means that you don't understand the logic which applies to all humanity. That's what I'm getting from you.
If God can't do it all, why would He add it literally in His own words? Couldn't He just say "I can do lots of things"and that's it?

Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Doesn't this read like a contradiction to you? God can do it all, or can't He? Which one is it?


He can't, and no, it doesn't read like a contradiction to me.


Well, God can do it all.


Why do you say that? Can you refute the passage above that states God cannot lie? Can you offer an alternative explanation of how we should interpret this verse?

Well, we should interpret His verses literally (wait, I think I have said this before).

Jason Proudmoore wrote:
I have another question for you, Implicator. Would you become a muslim?


I doubt it.

Why not?

I
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 05:07 pm
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator, I now understand what you meant with your example.


OK.


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
But why include it here, what point would it clarify?


It goes straight to the heart of claims that the Bible contradicts itself. Assume for a moment that there was a verse in the Bible that stated the following:

"Therefore be wary of the pepper, for it is hot, even when it is not hot."

Now, reading this verse in English might lead you to believe that it is expressing a contradiction. Yet all along it might be warning people with Reflux disorder to keep away from peppers because they are spicy, even in cases when the pepper has not been cooked.

It clarifies by way of analogy that a person may read something and think it contains a contradiction, when in fact they need to pay closer attention to context in order to determine the sense in which words are being used.

You've often heard it said that it is never good to simply pull a verse out of context (something that is done both by people who believe the Bible and those who do not.) The above analogy shows us why.


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The sentences are contradictory when is applied universally.


No, the sentences are not contradictory when applied universally - they aren't even contradictory when presented in English, although one may perceive that they are. They aren't contradictory specifically because I am using the term "hot" in two different senses, remember?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible has those contradictions in every emission, in every language. Since every language has these contradictions, then the Bible loses its logical meaning, and therefore, many people are skeptics.


You know the drill, Jason ... let's look at specific verses and see why it is you think there are contradictions. Remember there is more at play here than just the language you read the Bible in - you have your own set of assumptions that color the way you interpret the Bible, and those play heavily into your evaluation of scripture.

Maybe that's the next step in our discussion, since it seems we have both agreed as to the meaning of a contradiction.

I
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 05:29 pm
Implicator wrote:
Now, reading this verse in English might lead you to believe that it is expressing a contradiction. Yet all along it might be warning people with Reflux disorder to keep away from peppers because they are spicy, even in cases when the pepper has not been cooked.

Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The verse doesn't lead me to believe that there is a contradiction. The things is that the word "hot" has two connotations: spicy and hot (temperature). But if you used this same verse in any other language, you have to change that same word (tranlated into another language) and include the word spicy (translated into that language). That's why this only applies to English alone, the replica of the same word that translates into two different meanings. Therefore, the logical sense won't contradict the premise in which you use it in English. Other languages don't have this contradiction with the word "hot" being spicy and hot (in temperature). It is irrelevant to this argument.
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 05:36 pm
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
If God can do it all, would there be any limitations for Him?


Like I said before, such a God cannot logically exist.


Why can't this God exist (a God with no limitations)?


A God with no limitations could cause a rock to be black and red all over, no? Is that possible? A God with no limitations could cause himself to be God and not-God all over, at the same time, and in the same sense. Is that possible? A God with no limitations could create a rock so large he couldn't lift it, thus instantiating a logically contradictory state of affairs. Is that possible? I submit not.


We'll that is the definition of a God who can do it all.


Do you accept my answer as proof that such a God cannot logically exist?


Yes, this God can't exist. But the Bible says He does.


I disagree. Can you prove to me that the Bible says this type of God exists?



Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You seem to be speaking for the Bible, Implicator, changing its words and meaning.


Well, I certainly share my own perception of what the Bible is saying, just as you do.


I thought so.


So you agree that we both share our own perceptions of what the Bible is saying?


Yes, I share my own perception with logical proofs. You, on the other hand, don't share it logically.


You have yet to demonstrate any logical flaws in my reasoning process. I'm not saying they aren't there - just that you haven't demonstrated any. Please proceed to put your money where your mouth is, so to speak, and identify (and support) any of the illogical statements I have made.




Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible states that God can do it all.


I disagree. I do not believe that the Bible, when viewed in its entirety, presents a God who can do it all, specifically because of passages such as this:

Num 23:19 (NIV) "God is not a man, that he should lie,
nor a son of man, that he should change his mind.
Does he speak and then not act?
Does he promise and not fulfill?"

If God cannot lie, then he is not a God who can do it all.

Any comments on my scriptural support for my perception that the God of the Bible cannot just do it all?


What is your point here? Then if God can't lie, then He is limited, controlled by a higher power that constitute to not lying. He has limitations, therefore, He can't be God. An entity that can't do anything He wants, can't be God. God can do it all. How do you want me to take these words from His own, from the Bible, the guide for humanity salvation.


"He has limitations, therefore He can't be God."

Those are your exact words, Jason. They didn't come from the Bible, they didn't come from me. In fact, they fly in the face of what the Bible has to say about God. They are an assumption you have as to the nature of God, if God were to exist. Where does this assumption come from? You claim above that you are being logical in sharing your perception of the Bible, yet here you deny what the Bible says about the God it supposedly reveals. Why would you do that? What logic leads you to think you know more about God than the Bible does?

As to limitations, I never claimed that God was controlled by a higher power. I do not believe that the Bible presents us with a God who is limited by anything other than his own nature. If it is God's nature to never lie, then God will not (can not) ever lie. Now, how do I want you to take these words from His own mouth, the guide for salvation? I want you to take them literally, and I want you to rejoice that there is a God who cannot lie. When this God makes a promise (for instance, as to how salvation is to be accomplished) you can take his word to the bank specifically because he cannot lie.

Would you really prefer to put your faith for salvation in a God who just might end up lying?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
You're just assuming that God can't do it all.


I would submit that it is you who is assuming here, not me.


You know that this argument has been studied, not just by me but by many, many phylosophers and teologies. It isn't my opinion.


It doesn't matter how many philosophers or theologians have studied the problem. Many have studied the problem and have concluded just what I have concluded. Your response is a logical fallacy - an "appeal to the crowd". Now, what about the support I give about that the Bible does not present a God who can just do it all?


If you tell me that my response is a logical fallacy, it means that you don't understand the logic which applies to all humanity. That's what I'm getting from you.

If God can't do it all, why would He add it literally in His own words? Couldn't He just say "I can do lots of things"and that's it?


1) Please refer to the following article on the logical fallacy known as Argumentum Ad Populum. I am interested in hearing your comments after reading this, as to whether you now feel your claim of "You know that this argument has been studied, not just by me but by many, many phylosophers and teologies. It isn't my opinion" is a logical fallacy or not.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appeal_to_the_majority

2) Context, context, context is everything. When one reads a work of literature, one typically looks at the context to determine just how literal they should take a statement. For instance, if I am in a room of children and am dressed as Santa Claus, and make the claim "I am going to give a gift to everyone in the room!", should that be taken hyper-literally? In other words, does in make sense to claim that I was lying because I didn't give a gift to myself, even though I am part of the set of "everyone in the room"? When we consider all of what the Bible has to say, I don't believe we walk away with the idea that God can do just anything, especially considering the verse I quoted above.


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Doesn't this read like a contradiction to you? God can do it all, or can't He? Which one is it?


He can't, and no, it doesn't read like a contradiction to me.


Well, God can do it all.


Why do you say that? Can you refute the passage above that states God cannot lie? Can you offer an alternative explanation of how we should interpret this verse?


Well, we should interpret His verses literally (wait, I think I have said this before).


So if we take this verse literally, then we are to conclude that God cannot lie, correct?


Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
I have another question for you, Implicator. Would you become a muslim?


I doubt it.


Why not?


I find too much in Islam that contradicts what I already believe.

I
0 Replies
 
Intrepid
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 05:59 pm
neologist wrote:
Do you actually read the full text of all the posts?


I was, but this is getting beyond human endurance. I will leave this 2-way conversation in search of threads that do not quote every word previously written.
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Mon 26 Dec, 2005 06:16 pm
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:

Now, reading this verse in English might lead you to believe that it is expressing a contradiction. Yet all along it might be warning people with Reflux disorder to keep away from peppers because they are spicy, even in cases when the pepper has not been cooked.


The verse doesn't lead me to believe that there is a contradiction. The things is that the word "hot" has two connotations: spicy and hot (temperature). But if you used this same verse in any other language, you have to change that same word (tranlated into another language) and include the word spicy (translated into that language). That's why this only applies to English alone, the replica of the same word that translates into two different meanings. Therefore, the logical sense won't contradict the premise in which you use it in English. Other languages don't have this contradiction with the word "hot" being spicy and hot (in temperature). It is irrelevant to this argument.


Jason, if you read the verse … in English … and had not yet read it in any other language, it is possible that you would consider the verse to be contradictory. But to make it easier to palate, consider the this one verse was split into two verses, written by two different authors, a few hundred years apart. Again, you read these two verses in different books in the Bible (maybe one in the OT, and the other in the NT), and you read it in English alone. It is even more likely now that you would consider that it might be a contradiction. (Remember, you don't have the benefit of having preexisting clarification as to the sense in which the terms are being used.)

If you read the same verses in another translation (same language, English), this ambiguity might be cleared up. And like you said, if you read those two verses in an entirely different language, the odds rise that the ambiguity might be cleared up. But since it is possible (even likely) that a reading in one translation in one language could lead you to view this as a contradiction, then my analogy is entirely relevant to this argument. I don't claim that this is the only way a person might see a contradiction in scripture that does not exist, but it is certainly one possible way, and because of that, it is entirely relevant to this argument.

I
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 01:23 am
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:

Now, reading this verse in English might lead you to believe that it is expressing a contradiction. Yet all along it might be warning people with Reflux disorder to keep away from peppers because they are spicy, even in cases when the pepper has not been cooked.


The verse doesn't lead me to believe that there is a contradiction. The things is that the word "hot" has two connotations: spicy and hot (temperature). But if you used this same verse in any other language, you have to change that same word (tranlated into another language) and include the word spicy (translated into that language). That's why this only applies to English alone, the replica of the same word that translates into two different meanings. Therefore, the logical sense won't contradict the premise in which you use it in English. Other languages don't have this contradiction with the word "hot" being spicy and hot (in temperature). It is irrelevant to this argument.


Jason, if you read the verse … in English … and had not yet read it in any other language, it is possible that you would consider the verse to be contradictory. But to make it easier to palate, consider the this one verse was split into two verses, written by two different authors, a few hundred years apart. Again, you read these two verses in different books in the Bible (maybe one in the OT, and the other in the NT), and you read it in English alone. It is even more likely now that you would consider that it might be a contradiction. (Remember, you don't have the benefit of having preexisting clarification as to the sense in which the terms are being used.)

If you read the same verses in another translation (same language, English), this ambiguity might be cleared up. And like you said, if you read those two verses in an entirely different language, the odds rise that the ambiguity might be cleared up. But since it is possible (even likely) that a reading in one translation in one language could lead you to view this as a contradiction, then my analogy is entirely relevant to this argument. I don't claim that this is the only way a person might see a contradiction in scripture that does not exist, but it is certainly one possible way, and because of that, it is entirely relevant to this argument.

Why do I think that this example is irrelevant to this argument? Because this verse just applies to the English language, not to every language, just like many verses in the Bible. So you won't be able to make a point here.

I
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 09:45 am
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator wrote:

Now, reading this verse in English might lead you to believe that it is expressing a contradiction. Yet all along it might be warning people with Reflux disorder to keep away from peppers because they are spicy, even in cases when the pepper has not been cooked.


The verse doesn't lead me to believe that there is a contradiction. The things is that the word "hot" has two connotations: spicy and hot (temperature). But if you used this same verse in any other language, you have to change that same word (tranlated into another language) and include the word spicy (translated into that language). That's why this only applies to English alone, the replica of the same word that translates into two different meanings. Therefore, the logical sense won't contradict the premise in which you use it in English. Other languages don't have this contradiction with the word "hot" being spicy and hot (in temperature). It is irrelevant to this argument.


Jason, if you read the verse … in English … and had not yet read it in any other language, it is possible that you would consider the verse to be contradictory. But to make it easier to palate, consider the this one verse was split into two verses, written by two different authors, a few hundred years apart. Again, you read these two verses in different books in the Bible (maybe one in the OT, and the other in the NT), and you read it in English alone. It is even more likely now that you would consider that it might be a contradiction. (Remember, you don't have the benefit of having preexisting clarification as to the sense in which the terms are being used.)

If you read the same verses in another translation (same language, English), this ambiguity might be cleared up. And like you said, if you read those two verses in an entirely different language, the odds rise that the ambiguity might be cleared up. But since it is possible (even likely) that a reading in one translation in one language could lead you to view this as a contradiction, then my analogy is entirely relevant to this argument. I don't claim that this is the only way a person might see a contradiction in scripture that does not exist, but it is certainly one possible way, and because of that, it is entirely relevant to this argument.

Why do I think that this example is irrelevant to this argument? Because this verse just applies to the English language, not to every language, just like many verses in the Bible. So you won't be able to make a point here.


Once again, the verse is an example, in English, of a concept that is universal - namely, that a person reading a sentence which makes use of the same word in more than one sense might take it as a contradiction when it really isn't.

Whether you see the point I am making is entirely up to you.

I
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 09:56 am
Since we already know that the state of the pepper can contradict itself when using the same word in another language besides English, then the accomplishment of this argument is met. So, what's next?
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:10 am
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
So, what's next?


I would very much like to hear you support your contention below that God can do just anything.

From a previous post ...

Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
What is your point here? Then if God can't lie, then He is limited, controlled by a higher power that constitute to not lying. He has limitations, therefore, He can't be God. An entity that can't do anything He wants, can't be God. God can do it all. How do you want me to take these words from His own, from the Bible, the guide for humanity salvation.


"He has limitations, therefore He can't be God."

Those are your exact words, Jason. They didn't come from the Bible, they didn't come from me. In fact, they fly in the face of what the Bible has to say about God. They are an assumption you have as to the nature of God, if God were to exist. Where does this assumption come from? You claim above that you are being logical in sharing your perception of the Bible, yet here you deny what the Bible says about the God it supposedly reveals. Why would you do that? What logic leads you to think you know more about God than the Bible does?

As to limitations, I never claimed that God was controlled by a higher power. I do not believe that the Bible presents us with a God who is limited by anything other than his own nature. If it is God's nature to never lie, then God will not (can not) ever lie. Now, how do I want you to take these words from His own mouth, the guide for salvation? I want you to take them literally, and I want you to rejoice that there is a God who cannot lie. When this God makes a promise (for instance, as to how salvation is to be accomplished) you can take his word to the bank specifically because he cannot lie.

Would you really prefer to put your faith for salvation in a God who just might end up lying?


The question is this - what logical support can you offer for your opinion that God must be able to do anything at all, or else he isn't really God?

I
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:17 am
The Bible clearly states that "God can do it all."When these words are applied universally, there is no contradiction about its literal meaning in the English language as well as other languages, which means that He can do whatever He wants. With this already a logical and physical ( taken from His own word, the Bible) evidence that state His nature, there is a contradiction when there are more verses that state that He is impotent at times. And God can't be impotent. If He is impotent, He is no God. Can you see the logic here?
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:39 am
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible clearly states that "God can do it all."When these words are applied universally, there is no contradiction about its literal meaning in the English language as well as other languages, which means that He can do whatever He wants. With this already a logical and physical ( taken from His own word, the Bible) evidence that state His nature, there is a contradiction when there are more verses that state that He is impotent at times. And God can't be impotent. If He is impotent, He is no God. Can you see the logic here?


1) Let's see the specific verses(s) you are referring to, so that we can evaluate exactly what the Bible is saying.

2) Ambiguity of language is only one source of apparent contradictions. There are others as well. Once we have the verse(s) you are thinking of in front of us, we can evaluate whether or not there is a real contradiction, or simply a perceived one.

I
0 Replies
 
Questioner
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:45 am
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible clearly states that "God can do it all."When these words are applied universally, there is no contradiction about its literal meaning in the English language as well as other languages, which means that He can do whatever He wants. With this already a logical and physical ( taken from His own word, the Bible) evidence that state His nature, there is a contradiction when there are more verses that state that He is impotent at times. And God can't be impotent. If He is impotent, He is no God. Can you see the logic here?


1) Let's see the specific verses(s) you are referring to, so that we can evaluate exactly what the Bible is saying.

2) Ambiguity of language is only one source of apparent contradictions. There are others as well. Once we have the verse(s) you are thinking of in front of us, we can evaluate whether or not there is a real contradiction, or simply a perceived one.

I


Well, according to the bible he created everything. Does that count as being able to do 'anything'?
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:49 am
Questioner wrote:
Implicator wrote:
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
The Bible clearly states that "God can do it all."When these words are applied universally, there is no contradiction about its literal meaning in the English language as well as other languages, which means that He can do whatever He wants. With this already a logical and physical ( taken from His own word, the Bible) evidence that state His nature, there is a contradiction when there are more verses that state that He is impotent at times. And God can't be impotent. If He is impotent, He is no God. Can you see the logic here?


1) Let's see the specific verses(s) you are referring to, so that we can evaluate exactly what the Bible is saying.

2) Ambiguity of language is only one source of apparent contradictions. There are others as well. Once we have the verse(s) you are thinking of in front of us, we can evaluate whether or not there is a real contradiction, or simply a perceived one.

I


Well, according to the bible he created everything. Does that count as being able to do 'anything'?


I don't think so ... as there are things that even I can do that we would not consider to be a creative act in the sense you are using the term.

I think it counts as being able to do some thing (and a pretty impressive some thing at that), but the act of creating everything is not the only thing that can be done.

I
0 Replies
 
Questioner
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:53 am
Implicator wrote:

I don't think so ... as there are things that even I can do that we would not consider to be a creative act in the sense you are using the term.

I think it counts as being able to do some thing (and a pretty impressive some thing at that), but the act of creating everything is not the only thing that can be done.

I


Understood. My point was more that if he has the ability to create everything that we are currently aware of, it's a fair guess that he has the power to further maniuplate his creation as he sees fit.

However, that is assumption, so your point is taken.
0 Replies
 
Jason Proudmoore
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:55 am
Implicator, Implicator, why do you require physical evidence from me whenever I establish a strong argument about God existence? Don't I make any sense when I give you logical examples about those contradictions without presenting you an exact verse from the Bible? And by the way, don't you think you should do the same thing with the Bible, try to find the physical and logical evidence of its contradictions (that only will happy if you are a rational man)?

But let hit the problem at its core. With all do respect, it seems that you don't understand the concept of logic that I have explained to you previously. If you don't understand that the Bible describes God as all powerful, a being that can do it all, then I have to take such definition into consideration and prove that He is what the Bible says. But if His words lack such quality, then they have no validy. You seem to understand the logic here, but sometime you give the impression that you don't. Let's try something for the sake of this argument (and the rest). Get the definition of "rational," read it, and then apply it to your own persona. You then tell me if you are a rational person or not. If you are a rational person, then you will understand this logic that I'm talking about, if not, you won't be able to understand it. Therefore, this whole thing will be pointless. Do you understand me? Please, look up the definition of "rational"and apply it to yourself. Then, post your answer.
0 Replies
 
Questioner
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 10:59 am
Jason Proudmoore wrote:
Implicator, Implicator, why do you require physical evidence from me whenever I establish a strong argument about God existence?


Probably because no such thing exists.










Sorry, couldn't help it.
0 Replies
 
Implicator
 
  1  
Reply Tue 27 Dec, 2005 11:15 am
Questioner wrote:
Implicator wrote:

I don't think so ... as there are things that even I can do that we would not consider to be a creative act in the sense you are using the term.

I think it counts as being able to do some thing (and a pretty impressive some thing at that), but the act of creating everything is not the only thing that can be done.

I


Understood. My point was more that if he has the ability to create everything that we are currently aware of, it's a fair guess that he has the power to further maniuplate his creation as he sees fit.

However, that is assumption, so your point is taken.


Understood - but it is a very interesting thought you bring up.

I am of the opinion (which I think I can support from the Bible, even though it may be taken only as theoretical by some) that God acts according to his nature. That is, it is God's nature that defines who he is and what he can (and cannot) do.

Some may claim that this means that God is therefore not omnipotent, as there are things he is unable to do. And I can see the logic of that position - after all, doesn't "all powerful" mean he has all power? If we take this literal and technical definition to its limits, then I would have to say that I cannot rationally conceive that such a God as this exists.

However, we use universal language all the time in describing situations, people, etc, and so I don't think it is stretching things too far to call the God of the Bible omnipotent, just as long as clarify what we mean when we use that term. If a person wants to press me to the wall and claim that we should be literal and technical, then I would simply state that I don't believe the God of the Bible is omnipotent (in that sense), but simply believe that he is able to do anything he desires to do.

I
0 Replies
 
 

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