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Activist Judges

 
 
goodfielder
 
  1  
Reply Wed 12 Oct, 2005 08:56 pm
Conditions for a legitimate argument from authority

The authority must have competence in an area, not just glamour, prestige, rank or popularity.

The judgement must be within the authority's field of competence.

The authority must be interpreted correctly.

Direct evidence must be available, at least in principle.

The expert should be reasonably unbiased (not unduly influenced by other factors, such as money, political considerations, or religious beliefs). This is why appealing to one's own authority is always illegitimate.

The judgement must be representative of expert opinions on the issue (as opposed to an unrepresentative sample).

A technique is needed to adjudicate disagreements among equally qualified authorities.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appeal_to_authority
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Wed 12 Oct, 2005 09:04 pm
Parados still missing the forest for the trees. The "authority" for "originalism" is not one case and how it construes the terms in isolation. This is why your entire argument is a weak one.

Originalism is how the words were "understood" by the Framers at the time of drafting or by "society" as a whole. Originalism does not necessarily concern itself with what court's say. You are making the same tired and misplaced argument as Debra.

You make the same flawed assumption Debra makes. You "assume" the Dread Scott decision in interpreting the terms "due process" qualifies as "originalism". Well the fact is Dread Scott does not qualify as "originalism" for the meaning of the words "due process". Since this assumption is false, your entire argument, as I said before, is moot.

You seem to think that because substantive due process was found in the Dread Scott case then this must be the "original understanding" of the meaning of the terms. Nothing could be farther from the truth and consequently renders your point moot. The FACT is the original meaning, in other words the meaning understood by the Framers or society as a whole, was that due process required only "procedural" fairness. The fact is Dread Scott was a BREAK from the original meaning of the terms "due process".

The fact that it was a "break" from the original understanding of the words "due process" means, guess what, Dread Scott was a case of "judicial activism" just as "Roe v. Wade" was an instance of judicial activism. Why? Because Roe v. Wade departed from the original meaning of the terms "due process".

See it is short sighted and makes little sense to cite a case where substantive due process was applied ESPECIALLY when the case was a "novel" disposition, a new interpretation of the words "due process". Why was it novel? Because that is not how the words "due process" were originally understood nor were they understood this way WHEN the case was decided. What does this mean? It means Dread Scott was decided incorrectly as it took an interpretation of the words "due process" which defied it's "original" meaning.

Now of course you were simply remissed to notice the assumption underlying your argument primarily because you really do not understand textualism nor what "originalism" means. Had you understood both, or even possessed a rudimentary comprehension of what "originalism" means, then you would not have cited a case where the Court departs from the "original meaning" of the terms "due process".

So not only is your position my evaluation Roe v. Wade was activist wrong but it is premised upon a fundamentally flawed assumption, that "substantive due process" was originally understood in the meaning of the words "due process". It wasn't and you would help yourself out if you actually bothered to investigate this issue.

Additionally, this makes the silly idea the "framers did not specifically exclude it" moot. Because the Dread Scott case went against the original meaning and understanding of the words "due process" and the Framers did not understand the words "due process" to have a substantive component is sufficient. Oh you labor under such an erroneous assumption. It is your contention that the Framers of the 14th amendment actually "AGREED" with the Court's construction of the words "due process" in the Dread Soctt case so as to incorporate the Courts interpretation of the words into the 14th amendment.

You have to make this "assumption" otherwise your argument sucks, well it sucks anyway because the Framers of the 14th amendment DID NOT agree with the Dread Scott's construction of the words "due process". For an illustration of this you will either (1) Visit the library of Congress, consult the writing of some men of the time which define the terms as "procedural fairness" only, (2) Visit the library of Congress and consult the writings of some of the Framers of the 14th amendment as to what they understood the words "due process" to mean, and it will be clear in 1868 they understood the words to mean "procedural fairness", (3) Get a book devoted on the subject which has already done this for you or (4) Read one of Scalia's opinions where he gives the cited authority for you. But you have to make this assumption because if the words "due process" as defined by Dread Scott were not "understood" by the Framers to mean "substantive" than your argument falls apart. Especially when the Court's construction in the Dread Scott case WAS NOT followed for YEARS, in fact 30 years. The fact is the "one decision" did not become incorporated into the drafters of the 14th amendments "original understanding" of what the words "due process" meant. So without this assumption your argument falls apart, and rightfully so. It is incorrect.

Additionally, the words "substantive" due process did not even exist in 1868. Relevance? You are asking to "exclude" a "term" of art they had no knowledge of!

Had you actually done some research on the subject you'd find some legal experts disagree with the notion Dread Scott was the first case to employ "substantive" due process. In fact this may be a legitimate point as ALL of the constitutional law books I have which are devoted to the origins of substantive due process do not cite Dread Scott but rather Lochner v. New York or some other obscure case decided AFTER 1868.

Now let's examine your comments about appeals to authority.

Look the people who compiled these books are not constitutional idiots. If I want to compile a book on constitutional law, publish it, and want it used in law school classes, as the two books I mentioned are, then it is imperative the book be authored by individuals who are experts in constitutional law, who actually "know" constitutional law. These books were not compiled by coal minders in the hills of West Virginia which do not have a clue about constitutional law. These books and the contents in them were compiled by people who know what they are talking about.

If I want a professional medical opinion I am not going to consult the view of someone without a medical degree.

While it is true authority is not entirely dispositive it is useful and persuasive. Your mockery of it demonstrates a rather perilous position. I suppose when you want to be diagnosed whenever you feel sick you consult your drunk neighbor who quit high school and is still working on his GED 15 years later.

No you don't nor would you do such a thing for a good reason, he does not have a clue what he is doing, he is not "knowledgeable" on the subject. The people which have authored these two books are knowledgeable on the subject and for good reason.

Additionally, I even cited several Supreme Court cases which demonstrate the word "liberty" is being looked at in substantive due process clause caes. But someone who does not understand how authority is relevant much less how it works, such as yourself apparently, is probably incapable of being persuaded of anything because, after all, appealing to authority will always factor in to the equation.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 07:29 am
JM,

You set the bar...

Quote:
Remember we are talking about "judicial activism" and the meaning of it. Particularly, judicial activism is an interpretation which is not supported by the words of the text. So unless you have some evidence the words "due process" meant "substantive due process" back in 1868, which you don't, then you are in fact wrong legally, factually, and historically.


Now it appears you want to raise the bar. I can repeat your words over and over and over.. If you really want to argue with yourself.. OK.

You said "some" evidence. You admit that "some" evidence exists. Now you are arguing that "some" evidence isn't enough. Quite funny really.


Quote:
Originalism is how the words were "understood" by the Framers at the time of drafting or by "society" as a whole. Originalism does not necessarily concern itself with what court's say. You are making the same tired and misplaced argument as Debra.

How can originalism NOT be affected by previous court rulings? The legislature can't ignore what the court has done if they want to remedy it. If the law uses words that were defined by the court in a certain fashion they have to fully expect the court to define them the exact same way again. Your argument seems to be that Originalism is a vacuum that ignores its surroundings. A bogus argument if ever I heard one since it says laws don't have to follow any precedent from the courts.

Courts interpret laws. If the courts interpret a law wrong the remedy is not to write the exact words again. The remedy is to CLARIFY the wording based on what the court did. It is the height of stupidity for the legislature to just assume that one USSC ruling was a mistake. Precedent is precedent. Even you have to see that. Your argument about the original meaning in the 14th rings completely hollow. I am not missing the forest at all.

Quote:
You have to make this "assumption" otherwise your argument sucks, well it sucks anyway because the Framers of the 14th amendment DID NOT agree with the Dread Scott's construction of the words "due process". For an illustration of this you will either (1) Visit the library of Congress, consult the writing of some men of the time which define the terms as "procedural fairness" only, (2) Visit the library of Congress and consult the writings of some of the Framers of the 14th amendment as to what they understood the words "due process" to mean, and it will be clear in 1868 they understood the words to mean "procedural fairness", (3) Get a book devoted on the subject which has already done this for you or (4) Read one of Scalia's opinions where he gives the cited authority for you. But you have to make this assumption because if the words "due process" as defined by Dread Scott were not "understood" by the Framers to mean "substantive" than your argument falls apart. Especially when the Court's construction in the Dread Scott case WAS NOT followed for YEARS, in fact 30 years. The fact is the "one decision" did not become incorporated into the drafters of the 14th amendments "original understanding" of what the words "due process" meant. So without this assumption your argument falls apart, and rightfully so. It is incorrect.


Being a complete ass on your part doesn't make your argument any stronger. It is YOU that is making assumptions. You assume that the writers were too stupid to understand court rulings. I can see you will keep changing your argument as the holes are pointed out. Telling me to go the library of Congress doesn't buttress your argument at all. Instead it shows you can't provide the evidence. Why should I do any research when I have your statements to use against you? Your argument is faulty at its core and you can't even be consistent about it.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 08:27 am
James Madison: What is the "originalist" view of the "privileges or immunities" clause of the fourteenth amendment? What "privileges" or "immunities" does it protect?
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 11:58 am
James Madison wrote:
Parados still missing the forest for the trees. The "authority" for "originalism" is not one case and how it construes the terms in isolation. This is why your entire argument is a weak one.

Originalism is how the words were "understood" by the Framers at the time of drafting or by "society" as a whole. Originalism does not necessarily concern itself with what court's say. You are making the same tired and misplaced argument as Debra.

You make the same flawed assumption Debra makes. You "assume" the Dread Scott decision in interpreting the terms "due process" qualifies as "originalism". Well the fact is Dread Scott does not qualify as "originalism" for the meaning of the words "due process". Since this assumption is false, your entire argument, as I said before, is moot.
I made no argument that Dred was "originalism." I only said that Dred shows that "due process" was not restricted to procedure only in 1868 as you claimed and then went off about others not being able to show "substantive" existed. It DID exist because you brought it up later by bringing up Dred and all your arguments to downplay it don't destroy the fact that it existed.

Quote:
You seem to think that because substantive due process was found in the Dread Scott case then this must be the "original understanding" of the meaning of the terms.
Which original are you referring to? I am only pointing out that when the 14th was written, "substantive due process" had been ruled as part of it. The writers of the 14th were free to respond to it and make sure it wasn't included. They did no such thing.
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Nothing could be farther from the truth and consequently renders your point moot.
Since I never made the argument, you can't claim my point is moot.
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The FACT is the original meaning, in other words the meaning understood by the Framers or society as a whole, was that due process required only "procedural" fairness. The fact is Dread Scott was a BREAK from the original meaning of the terms "due process".
I have never discussed the original framers only the 14th. Your point is what appears to be moot.
Quote:

The fact that it was a "break" from the original understanding of the words "due process" means, guess what, Dread Scott was a case of "judicial activism" just as "Roe v. Wade" was an instance of judicial activism. Why? Because Roe v. Wade departed from the original meaning of the terms "due process".
Nice garbage without much meaning. Simply claiming something is "judicial activism" doesn't make it so.
Quote:

See it is short sighted and makes little sense to cite a case where substantive due process was applied ESPECIALLY when the case was a "novel" disposition, a new interpretation of the words "due process".
That would be called PRECEDENT in most instances and not disregarded out of hand by lawyers or legislators.
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Why was it novel? Because that is not how the words "due process" were originally understood nor were they understood this way WHEN the case was decided.
Says you and some books on that side of the issue. Books on the other side say differently which was my point about "authority." We can't ask the people that wrote it. We can only interpret their writings. Such interpretation is often done to support one's own opinion. ''It is manifest that it was not left to the legislative power to enact any process which might be devised. The article is a restraint on the legislative as well as on the executive and judicial powers of the government, and cannot be so construed as to leave congress free to make any process 'due process of law' by its mere will.'' Murray's Lessee v. Hoboken Land and Improvement Co. 59 U.S. (18 How.) 272, 276 (1856)
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What does this mean? It means Dread Scott was decided incorrectly as it took an interpretation of the words "due process" which defied it's "original" meaning.
Interesting take on it but let me refer to an authority myself. WestLaw states this in annotations on the Constitution...

Early in our judicial history, a number of jurists attempted to formulate a theory of natural rights--natural justice, which would limit the power of government, especially with regard to the property rights of persons. 18 State courts were the arenas in which this struggle was carried out prior to the Civil War. Opposing the ''vested rights'' theory of protection of property were jurists who argued first, that the written constitution was the supreme law of the State and that judicial review could look only to that document in scrutinizing legislation and not to the ''unwritten law'' of ''natural rights,'' and second, that the ''police power'' of government enabled legislatures to regulate the use and holding of property in the public interest, subject only to the specific prohibitions of the written constitution. The ''vested rights'' jurists thus found in the ''law of the land'' and the ''due process'' clauses of the state constitutions a restriction upon the substantive content of legislation, which prohibited, regardless of the matter of procedure, a certain kind or degree of exertion of legislative power altogether. 19 Thus, Chief Justice Taney was not innovating when in his opinion in the Dred Scott case he pronounced, without elaboration, that one of the reasons the Missouri Compromise was unconstitutional was that an act of Congress which deprived ''a citizen of his liberty or property merely because he came himself or brought his property into a particular territory of the United States, and who had committed no offence against the laws, could hardly be dignified with the name of due process of law.''

So the number one case law provider to lawyers states that Dred was not innovation at all. I'll let you think about that and your drunken neighbor working for a GED comment.

Quote:
Now of course you were simply remissed to notice the assumption underlying your argument primarily because you really do not understand textualism nor what "originalism" means. Had you understood both, or even possessed a rudimentary comprehension of what "originalism" means, then you would not have cited a case where the Court departs from the "original meaning" of the terms "due process".
ROFL... Oh.. so citing a case if you don't agree with it makes it lack of comprehension. Silly argument on your part. Citing cases you agree with by that logic shows the same lack of comprehension.
Quote:

So not only is your position my evaluation Roe v. Wade was activist wrong but it is premised upon a fundamentally flawed assumption, that "substantive due process" was originally understood in the meaning of the words "due process". It wasn't and you would help yourself out if you actually bothered to investigate this issue.
Again from Westlaw
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''It may prevent confusion, and relieve from repetition, if we point out that some of our cases arose under the provisions of the Fifth and others under those of the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution of the United States. While the language of those Amendments is the same, yet as they were engrafted upon the Constitution at different times and in widely different circumstances of our national life, it may be that questions may arise in which different constructions and applications of their provisions may be proper.'' French v. Barber Asphalt Paving Co., 181 U.S. 324, 328 (1901).
I suppose now you are going to tell me that the USSC doesn't have a good understanding of the constitution.
Quote:

Additionally, this makes the silly idea the "framers did not specifically exclude it" moot. Because the Dread Scott case went against the original meaning and understanding of the words "due process" and the Framers did not understand the words "due process" to have a substantive component is sufficient. Oh you labor under such an erroneous assumption. It is your contention that the Framers of the 14th amendment actually "AGREED" with the Court's construction of the words "due process" in the Dread Soctt case so as to incorporate the Courts interpretation of the words into the 14th amendment.

You have to make this "assumption" otherwise your argument sucks,
LOL. and your argument of saying mine "sucks" is so strong.
Quote:
well it sucks anyway because the Framers of the 14th amendment DID NOT agree with the Dread Scott's construction of the words "due process". For an illustration of this you will either (1) Visit the library of Congress, consult the writing of some men of the time which define the terms as "procedural fairness" only, (2) Visit the library of Congress and consult the writings of some of the Framers of the 14th amendment as to what they understood the words "due process" to mean, and it will be clear in 1868 they understood the words to mean "procedural fairness", (3) Get a book devoted on the subject which has already done this for you or (4) Read one of Scalia's opinions where he gives the cited authority for you. But you have to make this assumption because if the words "due process" as defined by Dread Scott were not "understood" by the Framers to mean "substantive" than your argument falls apart. Especially when the Court's construction in the Dread Scott case WAS NOT followed for YEARS, in fact 30 years. The fact is the "one decision" did not become incorporated into the drafters of the 14th amendments "original understanding" of what the words "due process" meant. So without this assumption your argument falls apart, and rightfully so. It is incorrect.

Additionally, the words "substantive" due process did not even exist in 1868. Relevance? You are asking to "exclude" a "term" of art they had no knowledge of!
If "substantive" due process didn't exist then neither did "procedural" since the terms were created to define a difference between 2 approaches. Just because a term didn't exist doesn't mean the item couldn't. The court didn't call it "substantive" but the rulings existed.

Quote:
Had you actually done some research on the subject you'd find some legal experts disagree with the notion Dread Scott was the first case to employ "substantive" due process.
Experts disagree is an argument now? I guess when you use it, its OK.

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In fact this may be a legitimate point as ALL of the constitutional law books I have which are devoted to the origins of substantive due process do not cite Dread Scott but rather Lochner v. New York or some other obscure case decided AFTER 1868.
Do you have EVERY law book? Or do you buy only those you agree with? Experts DISAGREE. Did you just change your mind on the validity of that argument?

Quote:
Now let's examine your comments about appeals to authority.

Look the people who compiled these books are not constitutional idiots. If I want to compile a book on constitutional law, publish it, and want it used in law school classes, as the two books I mentioned are, then it is imperative the book be authored by individuals who are experts in constitutional law, who actually "know" constitutional law. These books were not compiled by coal minders in the hills of West Virginia which do not have a clue about constitutional law. These books and the contents in them were compiled by people who know what they are talking about.

If I want a professional medical opinion I am not going to consult the view of someone without a medical degree.

While it is true authority is not entirely dispositive it is useful and persuasive. Your mockery of it demonstrates a rather perilous position. I suppose when you want to be diagnosed whenever you feel sick you consult your drunk neighbor who quit high school and is still working on his GED 15 years later.
Precisely why I don't go to you for a legal opinion. (Sorry, but your attitude deserves that response.)
Quote:

No you don't nor would you do such a thing for a good reason, he does not have a clue what he is doing, he is not "knowledgeable" on the subject. The people which have authored these two books are knowledgeable on the subject and for good reason.

Additionally, I even cited several Supreme Court cases which demonstrate the word "liberty" is being looked at in substantive due process clause caes. But someone who does not understand how authority is relevant much less how it works, such as yourself apparently, is probably incapable of being persuaded of anything because, after all, appealing to authority will always factor in to the equation.
Just because the court looks at it in a substantive fashion doesn't prove a thing about the founders intent. Also from Constitutional annotations..
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The understanding which the founders of the American constitutional system, and those who wrote the due process clauses, brought to the subject they derived from Coke, who in his Second Institutes expounded the proposition that the term ''by law of the land'' was equivalent to ''due process of law,'' which he in turn defined as ''by due process of the common law,'' that is, ''by the indictment or presentment of good and lawful men . . . or by writ original of the Common Law.'' 7 The significance of both terms was procedural, but there was in Coke's writings on chapter 29 a rudimentary concept of substantive restrictions, which did not develop in England because of parliamentary supremacy, but which was to flower in the United States.
So do you have any proof that the founders completely discounted Chapter 29? I didn't think so.

The problem with arguments about "intent" is that you and I didn't write it. We can argue all day and present selective "authority." The reality is that the constitutional intent is ultimately decided by the courts. You can disagree with the court but it doesn't make it "activism" when they do their job of interpretation.
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 02:27 pm
Joe from Chicago:

The original understanding of the meaning of the words Privileges and Immunities in the 14th amendment was talking about the "Bill of Rights".
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 02:41 pm
Quote:
Now it appears you want to raise the bar. I can repeat your words over and over and over.. If you really want to argue with yourself.. OK.

You said "some" evidence. You admit that "some" evidence exists. Now you are arguing that "some" evidence isn't enough. Quite funny really.


What is quite funny is you can play these word games all day long. The fact I did not carefully choose my words is my fault but your lack of understanding as to what "textualism" and "originalism" really constitute as is what is most humorous.

Citing one Supreme Court case back in 1858 which is novel and completely AGAINST the wide accepted meaning of the words "due process" does not qualify as "originalism".

Quote:
How can originalism NOT be affected by previous court rulings?


Well I already answered this question. Dread Scott was a case of "judicial activism" in and of itself. Why? Because they took a meaning of the words "due process" which was completely contrary to it's prior precedent and the settled law of the time.

Citing a substantive due process case does not help your argument. Why? Because the words "due process" in 1791 were not understood to mean anything more than "procedural due process". It was this understanding of the words in 1791 which qualifies as "originalism".

Hence, since Dread Scott went against the "original" meaning of the words "due process" it is a case which is not "supported" by the text. Consequently, Dread Scott was a case of judicial activism. Your main point was my conclusion Roe v. Wade was a case of judicial activism did not follow.

Your evidence for such a claim was the fact Dread Scott interpreted the words "due process" in such a way as to have a substantive component. That is the most peculiar way of refuting my point and makes no sense at all. Argue for the validity of Roe v. Wade as not being judicial activism by citing a case of judicial activism. Now that makes a lot of sense.

Most of the rest you said is either wrong or moot.
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 05:16 pm
JM,

The 14th amendment was adopted in 1868. Because of this simple fact you can't rely on a 1791 definition to give a textual meaning to the 14th amendment. You have to rely on the 1868 meaning of due process.

You have ignored the "authority" that states that Dred was not innovative and novel at all in its time. That statement shows that substantive was in practice at the time of the 14th amendment. (Dueling authorities.)

Whether Dred and the other cases were judicial activism or not is moot from a legal standpoint. The only relevent point is they existed at the time the text was written for the 14th amendment. Whether a case is activism or not it still is considered precedent. Without legislative or judicial action overturning that precedent it stands as decided law. You do not get to ignore a case just because you personally think it is "judicial activism." It doesn't work that way in the legal world which you should know.

Once a precedent is set it stands. You can't claim it doesn't exist because the court only decided it once. You can't claim it isn't relevent because the court only decided it once. Precedent is precedent whether it is right or wrong. Because Dred and other cases set a standard for substantive due process before the 14th, the only logical conclusion is that the precedent has to be included in the words.
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 05:18 pm
Other than personal insults and unsubstantiated ramblings, JM doesn't have much to offer the discussion on the meaning of due process of law.

James Madison (not the poster, but the FOUNDER), along with all of our founders, subscribed to the writings of John Locke. They established this country on the basis of natural law and the social compact.

All of our founders subscribed to the truth that all men are created equal and endowed with inalienable rights, e.g., life, liberty, pursuit of happiness, and that governments were instituted among men to SECURE those rights. See Declaration of Independence.

The Declaration of Independence embodies the essense of our social compact wherein the people enter into ordered society to SECURE life, liberty, and property from those who kill, enslave, rob, or otherwise deny or disparage individual rights. When the people formed the social compact, they RETAINED everything and surrendered nothing. The people merely delegated limited powers to the instituted government for the purpose of SECURING the blessings of liberty and justice for all.

The preamble of our Constitution provides:

We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.

It is beyond doubt that the history of our country and the writings of our forefathers amply demonstrate that our founding fathers established a LIMITED government for the purpose of SECURING rights and guarding against tyranny and oppression.

Upon delegating limited powers to Congress, our forefathers made it clear that Congress shall make only those laws that are NECESSARY and PROPER for carrying into execution the limited delegated powers.

The enactment of laws that are not necessary and proper, (e.g., unnecessary, improper, unreasonable, arbitrary laws that disparage or deny individual rights that the government was formed to secure), are invalid and in violation of the social compact and the "law of the land" that embodies protection of individual rights against arbitrary government power.

The Bill of Rights does not confer rights, it secures rights by placing LIMITS on government. Although the Bill of Rights enumerates some rights that the government shall not deny or disparage, the Ninth Amendment makes it clear that the enumeration of some rights retained by the people shall not be construed to deny or disparage all other rights retained by the people.

The word "LIBERTY" embraces the entire universe of LIBERTY on the continuum of importance from the freedom to wear a hat and to go to bed when one pleases on one end to the freedom to speak one's mind on the other end.

In 1798, Justice Chase wrote the following:

Quote:
The people of the United States erected their Constitutions, or forms of government, to establish justice, to promote the general welfare, to secure the blessings of liberty; and to protect their persons and property from violence. The purposes for which men enter into society will determine the nature and terms of the social compact; and as they are the foundation of the legislative power, they will decide what are the proper objects of it: The nature, and ends of legislative power will limit the exercise of it. . . .

There are acts which the Federal, or State, Legislature cannot do, without exceeding their authority. There are certain vital principles in our free Republican governments, which will determine and over-rule an apparent and flagrant abuse of legislative power; as to authorize manifest injustice by positive law; or to take away that security for personal liberty, or private property, for the protection whereof of the government was established. An ACT of the Legislature (for I cannot call it a law) contrary to the great first principles of the social compact, cannot be considered a rightful exercise of legislative authority. The obligation of a law in governments established on express compact, and on republican principles, must be determined by the nature of the power, on which it is founded. . . .

It is against all reason and justice, for a people to entrust a Legislature with SUCH powers; and, therefore, it cannot be presumed that they have done it. The genius, the nature, and the spirit, of our State Governments, amount to a prohibition of such acts of legislation; and the general principles of law and reason forbid them.


CALDER v. BULL, 3 U.S. 386 (1798).
http://laws.findlaw.com/us/3/386.html

Justice SCALIA, JM's idol, says a texualist must interpret the text reasonably to include ALL that it fairly means within the original intent of the drafters and ratifiers. Without doubt, the drafters and ratifiers reasonably and fairly understood that "due process of law" embraced the social compact as the law of the land and protected individual rights from arbitrary government infringements. They understood that due process of law included both procedural fairness with respect to HOW rights are disparaged and substantive fairness with respect to WHY rights are disparaged. If there was any doubt by some people with respect to the sustantive component of "due process of law" (which hardly seems feasible given their extensive knowledge of the social compact), that doubt was erased long before the Fourteenth Amendment was written and ratified by the states.

Justice Souter briefly outlined the history of "due process of law" before the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment in his concurring opinion in WASHINGTON et al. v. GLUCKSBERG et al. as follows:

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Before the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment, substantive constitutional review resting on a theory of unenumerated rights occurred largely in the state courts applying state constitutions that commonly contained either due process clauses like that of the Fifth Amendment (and later the Fourteenth) or the textual antecedents of such clauses, repeating Magna Carta's guarantee of "the law of the land." 5 On the basis of such clauses, or of general principles untethered to specific constitutional language, state courts evaluated the constitutionality of a wide range of statutes.

Thus, a Connecticut court approved a statute legitimating a class of previous illegitimate marriages, as falling within the terms of the "social compact," while making clear its power to review constitutionality in those terms. Goshen v. Stonington, 4 Conn. 209, 225-226 (1822). In the same period, a specialized court of equity, created under a Tennessee statute solely to hear cases brought by the state bank against its debtors, found its own authorization unconstitutional as "partial" legislation violating the state constitution's "law of the land" clause. Bank of the State v. Cooper, 2 Yerg. 599, 602-608 (Tenn. 1831) (Green, J.); id., at 613-615 (Peck, J.); id., at 618-623 (Kennedy, J.). And the middle of the 19th century brought the famous Wynehamer case, invalidating a statute purporting to render possession of liquor immediately illegal except when kept for narrow, specified purposes, the state court finding the statute inconsistent with the state's due process clause. Wynehamer v. People, 13 N. Y. 378, 486-487 (1856). The statute was deemed an excessive threat to the "fundamental rights of the citizen" to property. Id., at 398 (Comstock, J.). See generally, E. Corwin, Liberty Against Government 58-115 (1948) (discussing substantive due process in the state courts before the Civil War); T. Cooley, Constitutional Limitations *85%*129, *351%*397.

Even in this early period, however, this Court anticipated the developments that would presage both the Civil War and the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment, by making it clear on several occasions that it too had no doubt of the judiciary's power to strike down legislation that conflicted with important but unenumerated principles of American government. In most such instances, after declaring its power to invalidate what it might find inconsistent with rights of liberty and property, the Court nevertheless went on to uphold the legislative acts under review. See, e.g., Wilkinson v. Leland, 2 Pet. 627, 656-661 (1829); Calder v. Bull, 3 Dall. 386, 386-395 (1798) (opinion of Chase, J.); see also Corfield v. Coryell, 6 F. Cas. 546, 550-552 (No. 3,230) (1823). But in Fletcher v. Peck, 6 Cranch 87 (1810), the Court went further. It struck down an act of the Georgia legislature that purported to rescind a sale of public land ab initio and reclaim title for the State, and so deprive subsequent, good faith purchasers of property conveyed by the original grantees. The Court rested the invalidation on alternative sources of authority: the specific prohibitions against bills of attainder, ex post-facto laws, laws impairing contracts in Article I, ยง 10 of the Constitution; and "general principles which are common to our free institutions," by which Chief Justice Marshall meant that a simple deprivation of property by the State could not be an authentically "legislative" act. Fletcher, 6 Cranch, at 135-139.

Fletcher was not, though, the most telling early example of such review. For its most salient instance in this Court before the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment was, of course, the case that the Amendment would in due course overturn, Dred Scott v. Sandford, 19 How. 393 (1857). Unlike Fletcher, Dred Scott was textually based on a due process clause (in the Fifth Amendment, applicable to the national government), and it was in reliance on that clause's protection of property that the Court invalidated the Missouri Compromise. 19 How., at 449-452. This substantive protection of an owner's property in a slave taken to the territories was traced to the absence of any enumerated power to affect that property granted to the Congress by Article I of the Constitution, id., at 451-452, the implication being that the government had no legitimate interest that could support the earlier congressional compromise. The ensuing judgment of history needs no recounting here.

After the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment, with its guarantee of due process protection against the States, interpretation of the words "liberty" and "property" as used in due process clauses became a sustained enterprise, with the Court generally describing the due process criterion in converse terms of reasonableness or arbitrariness. That standard is fairly traceable to Justice Bradley's dissent in the Slaughter House Cases, 16 Wall. 36 (1873), in which he said that a person's right to choose a calling was an element of liberty (as the calling, once chosen, was an aspect of property) and declared that the liberty and property protected by due process are not truly recognized if such rights may be "arbitrarily assailed," id., at 116. 6 After that, opinions comparable to those that preceded Dred Scott expressed willingness to review legislative action for consistency with the Due Process Clause even as they upheld the laws in question. See, e.g., Bartemeyer v. Iowa, 18 Wall. 129, 133-135 (1874); Munn v. Illinois, 94 U.S. 113, 123 -135 (1877); Railroad Comm'n Cases, 116 U.S. 307, 331 (1886); Mugler v. Kansas, 123 U.S. 623, 659 -670 (1887). See generally Corwin, Liberty Against Government, at 121-136 (surveying the Court's early Fourteenth Amendment cases and finding little dissent from the general principle that the Due Process Clause authorized judicial review of substantive statutes). . . .



Despite JM's attempt at revising history, the framers and ratifiers of the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, reasonably and fairly understood the meaning of "due process of law" to embrace both procedural and substantive fairness as the law of the land and in accordance with the social compact that government was instituted to protect the people from tyranny and oppression and to SECURE life, liberty, and property.

JM, similar to his idol Scalia, violates Scalia's method of interpretation by refusing to interpret the text of the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment REASONABLY to include ALL that it fairly means in accordance with our history, our social compact, and the entire body of court precedents that existed prior to the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment that obviously informed the ratifiers of what they were approving. In doing so, JM and Scalia, produce an interpretation so absurd that it cannot possibly be reconciled with original intent.

Ignoring our social compact for the security of rights and the fact that the due process clause is a LIMITATION on government, JM claims that the due process clause provides that the state government CAN deprive any person of life, liberty, and property--even unreasonably, arbitrarily, and oppressively deprive any person of life, liberty, and property--so long as there is a PROCEDURE for doing so. According to Scalia, all the procedure that is due in some cases is the enactment of the state statute itself.

An interpretation that leads to such an absurd result is obviously wrong. Justice Harlan noted the absurdity of such a narrow, unreasonable interpretation of "due process of law" when he stated: "Were due process merely a procedural safeguard it would fail to reach those situations where the deprivation of life, liberty or property was accomplished by legislation which by operating in the future could, given even the fairest possible procedure in application to individuals, nevertheless destroy the enjoyment of all three."

There is no person on earth who can reasonably and fairly maintain that the drafters and ratifiers of the Fourteenth Amendment intended that phrase "due process of law" would be interpreted so narrowly as to exclude the requirement of substantive fairness in the application of state laws and allow state governments to violate the law of the land embodied in our social compact.

In attempt to avoid interpreting the text "due process of law" reasonably to include all that it fairly means, JM still claims that the phrase means procedure only and insists that modern substantive due process analysis looks to the word "LIBERTY" (and not at the phrase "due process of law") to conjure up "additional liberties" to protect liberty. He says that's what substantive due process--giving SUBSTANCE to the word LIBERTY.

What JM fails to understand is that the word LIBERTY in the Fourteenth Amendment embraces the ENTIRE UNIVERSE of liberties. It doesn't take a rocket scientist, however, to understand that some liberties within that entire universe of liberty are more important than others and are entitled to greater protection with respect to BOTH substantive and procedural due process.

When we conduct a PROCEDURAL DUE PROCESS analysis, we also look at the life, liberty, or property right that we are attempting to protect procedurally. We follow the analytical framework set forth in Matthews v. Eldridge, 424 U.S. 319 (1976), which requires consideration of three factors:

(1) the private interest that will be affected by the official action;

(2) the risk of an erroneous deprivation of such interest through the procedures used, and probable value, if any, of additional procedural safeguards; and

(3) the Government's interest, including the fiscal and administrative burdens that the additional or substitute procedures would entail.


In both a procedural due process analysis and a substantive due process analysis, we identify the life, liberty, or property interest that is affected and we analyze the procedural or substantive deprivation in terms of reasonableness with respect to the interest affected. We don't use the word "LIBERTY" to protect "LIBERTY" in a procedural due process analysis any more than we use the word "LIBERTY" to protect "LIBERTY" in a substantive due process analysis. How silly can JM be? We look at the phrase "due process of law" as the limitation on government that protects and secures both procedural and substantive fairness in the operation of our state laws with respect to our affected rights.


See, e.g., DESHANEY v. WINNEBAGO CTY. SOC. SERVS. DEPT., 489 U.S. 189 (1989):

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The Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment provides that "[n]o State shall . . . deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." Petitioners [489 U.S. 189, 195] contend that the State 1 deprived Joshua of his liberty interest in "free[dom] from . . . unjustified intrusions on personal security," see Ingraham v. Wright, 430 U.S. 651, 673 (1977), by failing to provide him with adequate protection against his father's violence. The claim is one invoking the substantive rather than the procedural component of the Due Process Clause; petitioners do not claim that the State denied Joshua protection without according him appropriate procedural safeguards, see Morrissey v. Brewer, 408 U.S. 471, 481 (1972), but that it was categorically obligated to protect him in these circumstances, see Youngberg v. Romeo, 457 U.S. 307, 309 (1982). 2

But nothing in the language of the Due Process Clause itself requires the State to protect the life, liberty, and property of its citizens against invasion by private actors. The Clause is phrased as a limitation on the State's power to act, not as a guarantee of certain minimal levels of safety and security. It forbids the State itself to deprive individuals of life, liberty, or property without "due process of law," but its language cannot fairly be extended to impose an affirmative obligation on the State to ensure that those interests do not come to harm through other means. Nor does history support such an expansive reading of the constitutional text. [489 U.S. 189, 196]

Like its counterpart in the Fifth Amendment, the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment was intended to prevent government "from abusing [its] power, or employing it as an instrument of oppression," Davidson v. Cannon, supra, at 348; see also Daniels v. Williams, supra, at 331 ("`"to secure the individual from the arbitrary exercise of the powers of government,"'" and "to prevent governmental power from being `used for purposes of oppression'") (internal citations omitted); Parratt v. Taylor, 451 U.S. 527, 549 (1981) (Powell, J., concurring in result) (to prevent the "affirmative abuse of power"). Its purpose was to protect the people from the State, not to ensure that the State protected them from each other. The Framers were content to leave the extent of governmental obligation in the latter area to the democratic political processes.


The word LIBERTY has SUBSTANCE with respect to both procedural protections afforded by due process of law (HOW we deprive people of their liberty interests) and substantive protections afforded by due process of law (WHY we deprive people of their liberty interests). The LIBERTY protected by the Fourteenth Amendment finds it protection, not in the word LIBERTY itself, but in the phrase "due process of law" that LIMITS the government with respect to both HOW and WHY it is effectuating the deprivation.

Contrary to JM's silly assertion, Courts are not interpreting the word "LIBERTY" to conjur up new or additional liberties for protection of "due process of law" because the word LIBERTY includes the entire UNIVERSE of liberties and ALL LIBERTIES are constitutionally protected against arbitrary infringements. The state may not deny or disparage our most important liberties unless the deprivation is NECESSARY and NARROWLY-TAILORED to serve a compelling state interst. For all other liberties that are not deemed as important as fundamental rights, the state may not deny or disparage those liberty interests unless the deprivation is rationally related to a legitimate government interest.

Thus, as I pointed out in a previous post on another thread, "due process of law" (the law of the land that embodies the social compact upon which this country was founded) protects ALL LIBERTY--great and small--from arbitrary government intrusions. "DUE PROCESS OF LAW" even protects a school boy in his decision to wear his cap backwards while attending a county fair because there was no rational basis for the county fair board to require him to wear his cap forward.

The text, "due process of law" must be interpreted reasonably to include all that it fairly meant when the Fourteenth Amendment was ratified--and in accordance with original intent, the phrase "due process of law" embodies both procedural and substantive fairness and prohibits state government from arbitrarily depriving persons of their life, liberty, and property interests procedurally (with respect to HOW the government is effectuating the deprivation) and substantively (with respect to WHY the government is effectuating the deprivation).

JM's responsive posts consist of personal attacks and unsubstantiated ramblings. Despite his obstreperous, narcissistic exaltations, he has not proven that he truly understands the social compact, the law of the land, the proper role of government, the Constitution as a whole, nor the "due process of law" text in the Fourteenth Amendment. I am done dealing with is rude rantings unless I desire to correct any more of his many erroneous assertions.
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 06:10 pm
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Precisely why I don't go to you for a legal opinion. (Sorry, but your attitude deserves that response.)


Well this reasoning deserves the following response, foolish and lunacy. Sorry but your attitude deserves such a response. I don't care if you come to be about a legal opinion. I could not care less. The fact is I know I am right about what substantive due process means and what the Court looks at under substantive due process. I am writing in articulating the process the Court looks at to determine if a right is fundamental.

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care if you do not come to me for a legal opinion. Anybody who reasons as you do is not worthy of good legal opinions from good lawyers but rather should be relegated to those coal miners in W. Virginia.

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made no argument that Dred was "originalism." I only said that Dred shows that "due process" was not restricted to procedure only in 1868 as you claimed and then went off about others not being able to show "substantive" existed. It DID exist because you brought it up later by bringing up Dred and all your arguments to downplay it don't destroy the fact that it existed.


I am espousing "textualism". Do you know what this means? Apparently you do not by this response above. You really do not know what "originalism" means at all. If Dread Scott was a case breaking from Originalism, then it stands to reason the Dread Scott case is not one whose meaning is considered to be the "original" meaning of the terms. Hence, the Dread Scott case was outside of the original meaning and understanding of the words "due process" and consequently, does not qualify as the "original" meaning of the words.

For all your huffing and puffing you can't even understand this simple and rudimentary point. This point is so elementary a person of limited understanding of textualism and originalism would have grasped it by now. But not you because it seems you are just not too perceptive. Oh you are good at looking at the minutiae, such as poor word selection, and illuminating this fact but other than this you can't really engage the substance of the argument primarily because you are not knowledgeable about the subject matter.

In fact it is complete lunacy to argue Dread Scott's interpretation of the words "due process" qualify as "originalism" when Dread Scott is considered a case in which "originalism" was abandoned! PRAY DO TELL how that argument works! It is a an argument so lacking in common sense and reason that it can't work. It is an argument which makes absolutely no sense, yet it is an argument you espouse.

Oh wait. You will assert you never made any such claim Dread Scott constituted as originalism. Well this is a great admission, ESPECIALLY in light of the fact that I am making an "originalism" argument for the terms "due process".

So as I said before your "point" is MOOT. You have admitted it yourself that your point is MOOT. Unless you are claiming the Dread Scott case qualifies as originalism, then there is no point in even engaging in this dialogue at all. Since it is my argument the "original understanding" of the words "due process" was "procedural" only then unless you are asserting the Dread Scott was "originalism" your point is MOOT.

But as you have freely admitted you are not making the claim Dread Scott's decision was "originalism" and since you are not, and I am making the claim Dread Scott was not "originalism", then you are not disagreeing with me at all. Hence, if the Dread Scott decision was not "originalism" when it was decided it was also not "originalism" in 1868.

Which, as I have said all along, is MOOT.

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Which original are you referring to? I am only pointing out that when the 14th was written, "substantive due process" had been ruled as part of it. The writers of the 14th were free to respond to it and make sure it wasn't included. They did no such thing.


Tell me something. Why even ask for my opinion when you admitted earlier you'd never ask for it at all?

Additionally, the Dread Scott case was interpreting the words "due process" as they appeared in the 5th amendment. Now admittedly this may be inconsequential but I make this point in replying to your argument.

In 1868 the U.S. Supreme Court had applied a "substantive" analysis to the words "due process" in the 5th amendment only. They had never held in 1868 this same meaning was part of the words in the 14th amendment primarily because the 14th amendment did not come into existence until several years after Dread Scott's interpretation of the 5th amendment's due process clause.

Furthermore, you are making an absurd demand. The Framers of the 14th amendment had never heard of the words "substantive due process" in 1868. In fact the Dread Scott case during the time of its decision or in 1868 had not been characterized as a "substanstive" due process case. Such a terminology did not make its appearance until many years after 1868. So you are making the assertion the Framers of the 14th amendment should have excluded something they had never heard of and never had any knowledge of in 1868. Such a demand makes no sense, no sense at all, yet you insist upon it.

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I have never discussed the original framers only the 14th. Your point is what appears to be moot.


This is my point. You do not know what "originalism" means much less what it looks at. What did the words mean to the drafters at the time they drafted the amendment? This is one of the things "originalism" focuses upon. Originalism looks to see what Framers "understood" the words to mean. Judging from the legislative dialogues and other texts the drafters of the 14th amendment did not "understand" the words "due process" to mean what the Court said it meant in the Dread Scott case. Rather, their understanding of the meaning of the terms guaranteed only "procedural" protection and nothing more. Hence, the words "due process" in the 14th amendment originally were understood to mean "procedural" protection because this is what the drafters of the amendment understood the words to mean. Hence, this analysis is the very essence of "originalism". Had you understood this before I suspect much of this exchange between you and I would have never taken place.

You are so dang good at looking at my words in previous posts but ignore those parts of my posts in which I explain "originalism" is what the Framers/Drafters "understood" the words to mean. Had you actually taken the time analyze these prior points then you would not be making the silly claim my point is moot. It is relevant and hardly moot.

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That would be called PRECEDENT in most instances and not disregarded out of hand by lawyers or legislators.


Well you know the terminology but are mistaken as it is applied. Severely mistaken. So you can correctly identify it as "precedent" but this is not a courtroom where a case is being argued. Rather, this is about "orignalism". This is a philosophical and intellectual dialogue regarding "textualism" and interpreting the U.S. Constitution.

So your appeal to "precedent" misses the point, as usual. Originalism is not so much concerned with "precedent" but asks the following, "Is this precedent compatible with the text?" Textualism is the mode of constitutional interpretation which asserts any interpretation which is beyond the original meaning of the text or in the alternative any interpretation which is beyond the meaning of the words of the text is a bad interpretation. Hence, your beloved precedent really addresses nothing in terms of the substance of the argument as a textualist would look at the precedent and ask, "Was it good precedent? Was it precedent which was based upon the text or extra textual?"

This is not a dialogue as to whether or not it is "precedent". Certianly it is "precedent" but this is irrelevant. Again if you actually knew the issues, which requires an understanding of textualism, rather reading "all" of my posts and not focusing on the minutiae as you do would have given you a good understanding of textualism, then much of your misguided comments could be avoided.

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Says you and some books on that side of the issue. Books on the other side say differently which was my point about "authority." We can't ask the people that wrote it. We can only interpret their writings. Such interpretation is often done to support one's own opinion. ''It is manifest that it was not left to the legislative power to enact any process which might be devised. The article is a restraint on the legislative as well as on the executive and judicial powers of the government, and cannot be so construed as to leave congress free to make any process 'due process of law' by its mere will.'' Murray's Lessee v. Hoboken Land and Improvement Co. 59 U.S. (18 How.) 272, 276 (1856)


You make little sense. In fact you are simpy contradictory. You made this comment in response to my argument Dread Scott was a departure from originalism. Now it seems you disagree Dread Scott was a departure from "originalism" or in the alternative disagree the words due process as they appear in the 14th amendment did not originally guarantee "procedural" protection only. Make up your freaking mind! Either you are making the argument it was originalism or you aren't!

You are very good at ignoring the forest and focusing on the trees instead. Not only have you done it in regards to my argument but even in regards to the case you provided above.

The Court said the following as to what the words "due process" ORIGINALLY meant. This meant, by process of law, as then understood, charge, defence, judgment before and by a legally constituted court.

This is what the words "due process" meant. It was as Hamilton said, and I quoted earlier on in this thread, "applicable only to the judiciary" and not against any act of the legislature. The Court even admits this was the original understanding when they use the language of "as then understood".

My goodness are you trying to prove me wrong or right? This case does not help you at all but simply reinforces my point while simultaneously making your argument crumble to the ground. The Court in this case tells you what the words originally meant and they DID NOT originally mean anything in the way of substantive analysis. The Court's own freaking language bears this out.

Additionally, was this supposed to be an example where "my authority" says one thing but another authority says something different? Well you quite simply did not provide an authority which disagreed with my contention the "authority" "originally" understood the words "due process" to guarantee "procedural" protection only. Rather, you cite a case where the Court reinforces my contention the words "due process" as "originally understood" guaranteed procedural protection only and was not originally understood to have a substantive component. Hey great job of illustrating "my authority" says one thing and "your authority" well was supposed to say something different but actually agrees with what I have been saying all along. Good job.

Now here is the absolutely fantastic part of the case. The Court cites and references all of the "authority" I am relying upon to demonstrate the words "due process" originally meant, guess what, procedural protection and supports Hamilton's observation, whom I quoted earlier, is applicable only to the judiciary and not the legislature! They cite cases among other documents and commentaries. Guess what all of this "authority" qualifies as? The "original" meaning of the term "due process" is found in these blessed "documents" and "authority" the Court cites and reinforce what I have been saying all along, the words "due process" did not originally have a substantive component to it.

To have followed, as in the state constitutions, and in the ordinance of 1787, the words of Magna Charta, and declared that no person shall be deprived of his life, liberty, or property but by the judgment of his peers or the law of the land, would have been in part superfluous and inappropriate. To have taken the clause, 'law of the land,' without its immediate context, might possibly have given rise to doubts, which would be effectually dispelled by using those words which the great commentator on Magna Charta had declared to be the true meaning of the phrase, 'law of the land,' in that instrument, and which were undoubtedly then received as their true meaning.

Do you know what the Court is saying here? I do. They are not suggesting the words "due process" has any substantive component to it. Rather, they are asserting it's "true meaning" is still binding. In fact they admit they want to adhere to it's true meaning.

More relevant language which confirms what I am saying. It is difficult, at this day, to trace with precision all the proceedings had for these purposes in the earliest ages of the common law.

Notice what they are focusing upon here? Proceedings is the focus. Why? Because originally the words "due process" guaranteed only "procedure".

This brief sketch of the modes of proceeding to ascertain and enforce payment of balances due from receivers of the revenue in England

Again the Court is looking at the "proceedings" in interpreting the clause because they understood the words "due process" mean only one thing, "procedural" protection.

So here you cite a case which does not stand for substantive due process but rather a case where the Court goes to great extremes to understand the original meaning of the words "due process" in light and relevant to the facts before them. This case helps me more than it hurts and just really diminishes your argument that the original understanding of the words "due process" meant something more than procedural protection.

So your point on "authority" came back to bite you as the authority you cite hardly proves the point you sought to make about authority. All of the authority in this case, as the case itself, supports what I have been saying all along; the words "due process" were originally understood to guarantee only procedural protection.

So thanks for your help in making my argument and destroying your own. I am eternally grateful for your help in proving yourself wrong and helping me be right.

Do I really need to comment on the Westlaw remarks? No because the cases you have provided, and all of it's cited authority, as my own evidence, demonstrates what the words "due process" originally meant, namely procedural protection and nothing more. In fact the Westlaw account actually supports me than hurts me.

jurists who argued first, that the written constitution was the supreme law of the State and that judicial review could look only to that document in scrutinizing legislation and not to the ''unwritten law'' of ''natural rights

This is precisely what textualism requests. The text of the U.S. Constitution is controlling and only the Constitution can be controlling in scrutinizing legislation and not the "unwritten law" of natural rights. The entire concept of "substantive due process" has a philosophical underpinning that there does exist "natural rights" and these natural rights are protected by the word "liberty" in the 14th amendments due process clause. This is exactly how the Court strikes down state law or "scrutinizes" state law. They look to the word "liberty" and determine it has "substance" that it protects "fundamental rights" of the individual and these are "rights" which are not "written" anywhere in the U.S. Constitution but rather they are the "unwritten" fundamental rights the Court asserts the word "liberty" protects.

Textualism repudiates this approach as being extra textual and the Westlaw example you provide reinforces my argument. The jurists would despise what the Court does today in looking at "unwritten" law and finding "rights" in this unwritten law because the Court admits the "rights" they find are not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution. So these jurists this West article cites would actually repudiate Substantive Due Process. The JURISTS would reject Roe, Lawrence, Griswold, Loving, Meyers, Prince, and so forth because each case talked about a right which was not "written" in the U.S. Constitution but nonetheless was protected by the unwritten law of "fundamental rights, rights which our society deem so important and fundamental". So the source for fundamental rights according to the Court under substantive due process is the appeal to "what society has traditionally afforded protection and deemed so important as to be fundamental" is an appeal to the "unwritten law" because society and what it has traditionally afforded protection and deemed so important is not "written law" but "unwritten law". That is the unwritten law analysis the Court uses and it is a process and analysis these jurists would reject.

The jurists in the West article wanted to bind the Court to the "written" law of the constitution and nothing else. So any appeal to "what society has traditionally afforded protection and deemed important as to be fundamental" is a standard they would reject as it is found NOWHERE in the text of the U.S. Constitution. Hence, it is an unwritten legal standard they would not want.

More importantly, however, this demonstrates you fundamentally do not understand what the words "substantive due process" mean. I have already spent a lengthy post articulating what it means by citing U.S. Supreme Court cases and their language from each case which is a substantive due process case.

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subject only to the specific prohibitions of the written constitution. The ''vested rights'' jurists thus found in the ''law of the land'' and the ''due process'' clauses of the state constitutions a restriction upon the substantive content of legislation, which prohibited, regardless of the matter of procedure, a certain kind or degree of exertion of legislative power altogether


LOL. Well this is not substantive due process but you have mistaken it for substantive due process. Further proof you do not know what substantive due process means. Textualists want the same thing. This is what Scalia meant when he said, "Due process requires only two things, a validly enacted statute and a fair trial.

What Scalia means by a "validly enacted statute" is the statute must be "constitutional". No state can pass a law whose substance violates the U.S. Constitution. No state can pass a law where Congress is exclusively given this power in the U.S. Constitution. Hence, the U.S. Constitution is a check on the "substance" of state statutes and is the very nature of our constitutional system, a state cannot pass a law on a matter where such a matter is reserved to the federal government or in violation of some other provision of the U.S. Constitution and this is REQUIRED by the very nature of a constitutional system as opposed to any "substantive" reuirement but this is not "substantive due process". So textualists would agree with this statement by Westlaw. In fact Scalia, the nation's most prominent textualist and champion of originalism, would agree with the statement and admonish you, as I have, that this is not talking about "substantive due process" and you if you think so then you really do not know what "substantive due process" means.

With this said we are talking about something entirely different than what Westlaw is talking about and have said nothing which refutes me or helps you.

Principally, we are talking about what do the words "DUE PROCESS" mean? Textualists take an "originalist" approach and argue the "original understanding and meaning of the terms" is controlling. This would mean "procedure" and nothing more and Westlaw does not refute this at all. The Westlaw excerpts simply state a truism of our constitutional system, the states cannot pass a law on a subject matter (substance) which is reserved to the Federal government. That is not substantive due process and if you thought it was or believe it is, then you were wrong and do not know what "substantive due process" means.

But I do. In fact one of my posts even demonstrates substantive due process is where the Court looks at the word "liberty" in the 14th amendment and asserts it has a "substance" in that it protects a liberty/privacy interest and then based on the "importance" of the privacy interest what level of scrutiny is to be applied.

Had you actually bothered to read this post and the cases I cited you would not be confused as to what "substantive due process" means.

Then you provide some material, cases and so forth, which actually help my argument. You make this error simply because you are confused as to what "originalism" means and looks at and what substantive due process means.

But I know what it means. I have provided a bunch of cases illustrating what it means to the Court. I know the law on substantive due process and fundamental rights.

I have spent hours researching this subject. Constitutional law is my forte. My posts illustrate I know what I am talking about, especially the fact I am citing the correct cases and quoting them.

So while you may not want my legal opinion because I am admittedly arrogant this is not a good reason at all! In fact it is a bad reason. I DO KNOW what I am talking about. I do know the law, it's precedent and Supreme Court interpretation and this is evidenced by the cases I have cited. Additionally, I have a judicial philosophy that is based upon hours of research and thought. Yes I am arrogant because of this hard work I have done and because I know I am right.

Now while you may dislike my attitude make no mistak if you came to me for a legal opinion I would give the "current" law on the issue, whether I like it or not, and if you "asked" tell you why I think it is wrong. But make no mistake I'd be "right" in telling you what the legal precedent says, unlike some other people here, and wouldn't you want a "right" and "correct" legal opinion as opposed to a wrong one?

Now I have enjoyed the exchange. Good effort.
0 Replies
 
goodfielder
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 06:38 pm
Here comes a simplistic but heartily felt question to both Debra-Law and JM if you wouldn't mind answering it.

What is the purpose of due process?

I think I know - well from my own perspective anyway - but I would be interested to read (hah I nearly wrote "hear") your opinions on that questiion.
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 07:00 pm
Debra you are so wrong you are hardly worth addressing. Really you make so many errors about what the Court does and what substantive due process means that I'd be embarassed, if I were you, to call myself a lawyer.

Quote:
The LIBERTY protected by the Fourteenth Amendment finds it protection, not in the word LIBERTY itself, but in the phrase "due process of law" that LIMITS the government with respect to both HOW and WHY it is effectuating the deprivation.


This could not be anymore wrong, I mean this is as wrong as something can get.

I even cited those cases where the Court first looks at the word "liberty" and after finding it protects the "privacy interest" then they ask what level of scrutiny is required.

So there is a two step process. First, the Court asks is this an interest protected by the word "liberty"? This is the very first question the Court asked in Meyer, Pierce, Roe, Lawrence, Lochner, and so forth.

I even quoted those cases, even LAWRENCE, where they talk about the "substance" of the word "LIBERTY". They are looking at the word "liberty" and asking does it protect this interest? IF IT DOES NOT, then there is no protection.

It is amazing you can ignore all the case law I cited which says you are "WRONG". The Court in everyone of those cases first ASKS and looks to see if the interest is protected by the word "liberty".

Once again I will cut and past language from cases which say you are wrong.

Lawrence:in the exercise of their liberty...There are broad statements of the substantive reach of liberty...Had those who drew and ratified the Due Process Clauses of the Fifth Amendment or the Fourteenth Amendment known the components of liberty

There it is one case of many I am once again cite for you. The Court looks first to the word "LIBERTY" in the 14th amendment. The last freaking line tells you they are focusing upon the word "LIBERTY".

Roe:This right of privacy, whether it be founded in the Fourteenth Amendment's concept of personal liberty and restrictions upon state action, as we feel it is

Michael H. v. Gerald D.It is an established part of our constitutional jurisprudence that the term "liberty" in the Due Process Clause


The Court says the same thing in Meyer, Pierce, and other substantive cases. Demonstrating I am right, the Court's first step, it's first inquiry, is whether or not the word "liberty" protects the interest. The Court is ALWAYS looking at the word "liberty" and determining it has "substance" determining it protects some "interest".

Despite your assertions to the contrary, these U.S. Supreme Court cases say you are "wrong". And you are most certainly wrong. The Court does begin it's step by looking at the word "liberty" to determine if the interest is protected by the word "liberty". Every case I mentioned reinforces what I have said and shows your error.

Now what "method" does the Court use to determine the interest is protected by the word "liberty"? I have posted it before and do it again here.

Griswold v. Connecticut:protects those liberties so rooted in the traditions and conscience of our people as to be ranked fundamental.

This is the method the Court uses and employs to determine if the interest is protected by the word "liberty" in the 14th amendment.

Michael H. :Michael H. v. Gerald D.It is an established part of our constitutional jurisprudence that the term "liberty" in the Due Process Clause... we have insisted not merely that the interest denominated as a "liberty" be "fundamental" (a concept that, in isolation, is hard to objectify), but also that it be an interest traditionally protected by our society. [FN2] As we have put it, the **2342 affords only those protections "so rooted in the traditions and conscience of our people as to be ranked as fundamental." Snyder v. Massachusetts, 291 U.S. 97, 105, 54 S.Ct. 330, 332, 78 L.Ed. 674 (1934) (Cardozo, J.). Our cases reflect "continual insistence upon respect for the teachings of history [and] solid recognition *123 of the basic values that underlie our society...." Griswold v. Connecticut, 381 U.S. 479, 501, 85 S.Ct. 1678, 1690, 14 L.Ed.2d 510 (1965) (Harlan, J., concurring in judgment).


That is the method the Court uses to FIRST, determine if the interest is protected by the word "liberty". They ask whether or not the interest is one "so rooted in the traditions and conscience of our people as to be ranked fundamental". If the interest is, then it is protected by the word "liberty" and THEN strict scrutiny applies.

Now you are just wrong Debra, in fact most of your post is wrong.

You lack such a fundamental understanding of "textualism" that you do not know when "originalism" is applied as opposed to "a text should be construed to contain all that it fairly means".

Additionally, as Scalia noted, the plain english guarantees only "due process" and not any additional liberties.

But I simply do not have the time to keep going down the list of illuminating your erros stemming from your lack of understanding textualism and what the Court does.

It is a shame because a thorough discourse would be great but will never happen because you do not know enough about textualism or Scalia's philosophy to make valid objections. Your objections are wrong because you do not know textualism at all. Most of your criticisms of Scalia are so off the mark they are not worth addressing, just as you were off the mark the Court does not look to the word "liberty".

You simply do not know or understand enough of Scalia's philosophy to make legitimate criticisms. It took me reading his book and several of his opinions just to get a good grasp of his philosophy but I know enough to know you do not know or understand much of it.

Even the law review articles do not attack his philosophy the way you do and there is a reason why. Your objections are premised from the fact you have no clue what Scalia is talking about or how it works and those who wrote the law articles do because their objections are "right on" the money whereas yours are, let's say further left of the center than Karl Marx, primarily because you do not know enough about Scalia's philosophy.

No point in engaging someone in a discussion when they do not know enough information to actually make a halfway correct and decent argument about textualism but are still convinced they do. This makes you uncapable of being corrected and having a dialogue with.
0 Replies
 
James Madison
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 07:08 pm
The "purpose" of due process was to provide "protection". I think this is something both Debra and I can agree upon. At least we agree upon something.

But it is to afford "protection". Where her and I disagree is what "kind" of protection.

I take an originalist approach and assert it is only "procedural".
0 Replies
 
parados
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 07:17 pm
James Madison wrote:

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care .


That seems to be the basis of your entire argument.

Since you are espousing "textualism" how the hell do you use a 1791 definition in a 1868 amendment? Oh.. wait.. I forgot..

James Madison wrote:

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care .


Dred is not moot since the entire point of originalism is that the view of what due process meant MUST be taken into account in reading the 1868 amendment. Your continuing requirement that we throw out the MEANING defined by the court in Dred and several other cases is in direct violation of what originalism is. Dred may not be originalism in a reading of the 5th amendment but it MUST be taken into account if you are using originalism in reading the 14th. If you refuse to take Dred into account in reading the 14th then you are not being an originalist at all. But wait... I forgot..

James Madison wrote:

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care .


You claim to know the mind of the writers of the 14th but provide NO supporting evidence as to what that was. But wait.. I forgot...

James Madison wrote:

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care .


And for god's sake learn how to spell Dred and get the dates right.. But wait.. I forgot..

James Madison wrote:

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care .
0 Replies
 
goodfielder
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 08:26 pm
James Madison wrote:
The "purpose" of due process was to provide "protection". I think this is something both Debra and I can agree upon. At least we agree upon something.

But it is to afford "protection". Where her and I disagree is what "kind" of protection.

I take an originalist approach and assert it is only "procedural".


Thanks JM that is helpful. I think I can better understand both your argument and Debra_Law's better now.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 08:33 pm
James Madison wrote:
Joe from Chicago:

The original understanding of the meaning of the words Privileges and Immunities in the 14th amendment was talking about the "Bill of Rights".

So then you'd agree that the Slaughterhouse Cases were wrongly decided, correct?
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 08:38 pm
James Madison wrote:
Joe from Chicago:

The original understanding of the meaning of the words Privileges and Immunities in the 14th amendment was talking about the "Bill of Rights".

So then you'd agree that the Slaughterhouse Cases were wrongly decided, correct?
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 09:50 pm
goodfielder wrote:
What is the purpose of due process?


The purpose of due process of law is to prevent government from abusing its power or employing it as an instrument of oppression by providing both procedural and substantive protection against arbitrary laws.
0 Replies
 
goodfielder
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 10:08 pm
Thanks again Debra_Law.

I really am getting the big picture now, I can tell you.
0 Replies
 
Debra Law
 
  1  
Reply Thu 13 Oct, 2005 11:26 pm
JM wrote:
Well this reasoning deserves the following response, foolish and lunacy. Sorry but your attitude deserves such a response. I don't care if you come to be about a legal opinion. I could not care less. The fact is I know I am right about what substantive due process means and what the Court looks at under substantive due process. I am writing in articulating the process the Court looks at to determine if a right is fundamental.

The fact is I am right and so I don't really care if you do not come to me for a legal opinion. Anybody who reasons as you do is not worthy of good legal opinions from good lawyers but rather should be relegated to those coal miners in W. Virginia. . . .

[litany of abuse snipped]




It is exactly this type of obstreperous narcissism with nothing to offer but a litany of personal attacks and insults that makes it difficult to wade through JM's postings.

Even if it's possible for JM to make a valid point somewhere in his unsubstantiated ramblings and self-aggrandizements ad nauseam, I have certainly lost interest in trying to find it. I quit reading about half-way through because JM's writing style is uninformative, disorganized, tedious and offensive. If his writings here exemplify the arguments that he would present to a judge, then his powers of persuasion need considerable refinement. His scant citations to authority to obstensibly substantiate his assertions misrepresent what the authority actually states and holds. And this is the type of intellectual dishonesty that the legal profession abhors. Thus far, JM has to little to offer on the issue of alleged judicial activism with repect to substantive due process except his own inflated illusions of greatness.

JM, your argument that the word "LIBERTY" rather than the phrase "due process of law" in the Fourteenth Amendment serves to protect LIBERTY and that substantive due process is merely judges looking at the word "LIBERTY" to conjur up "additional liberties" is intellectually dishonest. If you are truly the brilliant juris doctor that you claim to be, you will exclude the abrasive bravado from your arguments and concentrate on trustworthiness. With that said, I'm done responding to your posts.
0 Replies
 
 

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