Quote:Precisely why I don't go to you for a legal opinion. (Sorry, but your attitude deserves that response.)
Well this reasoning deserves the following response, foolish and lunacy. Sorry but your attitude deserves such a response. I don't care if you come to be about a legal opinion. I could not care less. The fact is I know I am right about what substantive due process means and what the Court looks at under substantive due process. I am writing in articulating the process the Court looks at to determine if a right is fundamental.
The fact is I am right and so I don't really care if you do not come to me for a legal opinion. Anybody who reasons as you do is not worthy of good legal opinions from good lawyers but rather should be relegated to those coal miners in W. Virginia.
Quote:made no argument that Dred was "originalism." I only said that Dred shows that "due process" was not restricted to procedure only in 1868 as you claimed and then went off about others not being able to show "substantive" existed. It DID exist because you brought it up later by bringing up Dred and all your arguments to downplay it don't destroy the fact that it existed.
I am espousing "textualism". Do you know what this means? Apparently you do not by this response above. You really do not know what "originalism" means at all. If Dread Scott was a case breaking from Originalism, then it stands to reason the Dread Scott case is not one whose meaning is considered to be the "original" meaning of the terms. Hence, the Dread Scott case was outside of the original meaning and understanding of the words "due process" and consequently, does not qualify as the "original" meaning of the words.
For all your huffing and puffing you can't even understand this simple and rudimentary point. This point is so elementary a person of limited understanding of textualism and originalism would have grasped it by now. But not you because it seems you are just not too perceptive. Oh you are good at looking at the minutiae, such as poor word selection, and illuminating this fact but other than this you can't really engage the substance of the argument primarily because you are not knowledgeable about the subject matter.
In fact it is complete lunacy to argue Dread Scott's interpretation of the words "due process" qualify as "originalism" when Dread Scott is considered a case in which "originalism" was abandoned! PRAY DO TELL how that argument works! It is a an argument so lacking in common sense and reason that it can't work. It is an argument which makes absolutely no sense, yet it is an argument you espouse.
Oh wait. You will assert you never made any such claim Dread Scott constituted as originalism. Well this is a great admission, ESPECIALLY in light of the fact that I am making an "originalism" argument for the terms "due process".
So as I said before your "point" is MOOT. You have admitted it yourself that your point is MOOT. Unless you are claiming the Dread Scott case qualifies as originalism, then there is no point in even engaging in this dialogue at all. Since it is my argument the "original understanding" of the words "due process" was "procedural" only then unless you are asserting the Dread Scott was "originalism" your point is MOOT.
But as you have freely admitted you are not making the claim Dread Scott's decision was "originalism" and since you are not, and I am making the claim Dread Scott was not "originalism", then you are not disagreeing with me at all. Hence, if the Dread Scott decision was not "originalism" when it was decided it was also not "originalism" in 1868.
Which, as I have said all along, is MOOT.
Quote:Which original are you referring to? I am only pointing out that when the 14th was written, "substantive due process" had been ruled as part of it. The writers of the 14th were free to respond to it and make sure it wasn't included. They did no such thing.
Tell me something. Why even ask for my opinion when you admitted earlier you'd never ask for it at all?
Additionally, the Dread Scott case was interpreting the words "due process" as they appeared in the 5th amendment. Now admittedly this may be inconsequential but I make this point in replying to your argument.
In 1868 the U.S. Supreme Court had applied a "substantive" analysis to the words "due process" in the 5th amendment only. They had never held in 1868 this same meaning was part of the words in the 14th amendment primarily because the 14th amendment did not come into existence until several years after Dread Scott's interpretation of the 5th amendment's due process clause.
Furthermore, you are making an absurd demand. The Framers of the 14th amendment had never heard of the words "substantive due process" in 1868. In fact the Dread Scott case during the time of its decision or in 1868 had not been characterized as a "substanstive" due process case. Such a terminology did not make its appearance until many years after 1868. So you are making the assertion the Framers of the 14th amendment should have excluded something they had never heard of and never had any knowledge of in 1868. Such a demand makes no sense, no sense at all, yet you insist upon it.
Quote:I have never discussed the original framers only the 14th. Your point is what appears to be moot.
This is my point. You do not know what "originalism" means much less what it looks at. What did the words mean to the drafters at the time they drafted the amendment? This is one of the things "originalism" focuses upon. Originalism looks to see what Framers "understood" the words to mean. Judging from the legislative dialogues and other texts the drafters of the 14th amendment did not "understand" the words "due process" to mean what the Court said it meant in the Dread Scott case. Rather, their understanding of the meaning of the terms guaranteed only "procedural" protection and nothing more. Hence, the words "due process" in the 14th amendment originally were understood to mean "procedural" protection because this is what the drafters of the amendment understood the words to mean. Hence, this analysis is the very essence of "originalism". Had you understood this before I suspect much of this exchange between you and I would have never taken place.
You are so dang good at looking at my words in previous posts but ignore those parts of my posts in which I explain "originalism" is what the Framers/Drafters "understood" the words to mean. Had you actually taken the time analyze these prior points then you would not be making the silly claim my point is moot. It is relevant and hardly moot.
Quote:That would be called PRECEDENT in most instances and not disregarded out of hand by lawyers or legislators.
Well you know the terminology but are mistaken as it is applied. Severely mistaken. So you can correctly identify it as "precedent" but this is not a courtroom where a case is being argued. Rather, this is about "orignalism". This is a philosophical and intellectual dialogue regarding "textualism" and interpreting the U.S. Constitution.
So your appeal to "precedent" misses the point, as usual. Originalism is not so much concerned with "precedent" but asks the following, "Is this precedent compatible with the text?" Textualism is the mode of constitutional interpretation which asserts any interpretation which is beyond the original meaning of the text or in the alternative any interpretation which is beyond the meaning of the words of the text is a bad interpretation. Hence, your beloved precedent really addresses nothing in terms of the substance of the argument as a textualist would look at the precedent and ask, "Was it good precedent? Was it precedent which was based upon the text or extra textual?"
This is not a dialogue as to whether or not it is "precedent". Certianly it is "precedent" but this is irrelevant. Again if you actually knew the issues, which requires an understanding of textualism, rather reading "all" of my posts and not focusing on the minutiae as you do would have given you a good understanding of textualism, then much of your misguided comments could be avoided.
Quote:Says you and some books on that side of the issue. Books on the other side say differently which was my point about "authority." We can't ask the people that wrote it. We can only interpret their writings. Such interpretation is often done to support one's own opinion. ''It is manifest that it was not left to the legislative power to enact any process which might be devised. The article is a restraint on the legislative as well as on the executive and judicial powers of the government, and cannot be so construed as to leave congress free to make any process 'due process of law' by its mere will.'' Murray's Lessee v. Hoboken Land and Improvement Co. 59 U.S. (18 How.) 272, 276 (1856)
You make little sense. In fact you are simpy contradictory. You made this comment in response to my argument Dread Scott was a departure from originalism. Now it seems you disagree Dread Scott was a departure from "originalism" or in the alternative disagree the words due process as they appear in the 14th amendment did not originally guarantee "procedural" protection only. Make up your freaking mind! Either you are making the argument it was originalism or you aren't!
You are very good at ignoring the forest and focusing on the trees instead. Not only have you done it in regards to my argument but even in regards to the case you provided above.
The Court said the following as to what the words "due process" ORIGINALLY meant.
This meant, by process of law, as then understood, charge, defence, judgment before and by a legally constituted court.
This is what the words "due process" meant. It was as Hamilton said, and I quoted earlier on in this thread, "applicable only to the judiciary" and not against any act of the legislature. The Court even admits this was the original understanding when they use the language of "as then understood".
My goodness are you trying to prove me wrong or right? This case does not help you at all but simply reinforces my point while simultaneously making your argument crumble to the ground. The Court in this case tells you what the words originally meant and they DID NOT originally mean anything in the way of substantive analysis. The Court's own freaking language bears this out.
Additionally, was this supposed to be an example where "my authority" says one thing but another authority says something different? Well you quite simply did not provide an authority which disagreed with my contention the "authority" "originally" understood the words "due process" to guarantee "procedural" protection only. Rather, you cite a case where the Court reinforces my contention the words "due process" as "originally understood" guaranteed procedural protection only and was not originally understood to have a substantive component. Hey great job of illustrating "my authority" says one thing and "your authority" well was supposed to say something different but actually agrees with what I have been saying all along. Good job.
Now here is the absolutely fantastic part of the case. The Court cites and references all of the "authority" I am relying upon to demonstrate the words "due process" originally meant, guess what, procedural protection and supports Hamilton's observation, whom I quoted earlier, is applicable only to the judiciary and not the legislature! They cite cases among other documents and commentaries. Guess what all of this "authority" qualifies as? The "original" meaning of the term "due process" is found in these blessed "documents" and "authority" the Court cites and reinforce what I have been saying all along, the words "due process" did not originally have a substantive component to it.
To have followed, as in the state constitutions, and in the ordinance of 1787, the words of Magna Charta, and declared that no person shall be deprived of his life, liberty, or property but by the judgment of his peers or the law of the land, would have been in part superfluous and inappropriate. To have taken the clause, 'law of the land,' without its immediate context, might possibly have given rise to doubts, which would be effectually dispelled by using those words which the great commentator on Magna Charta had declared to be the true meaning of the phrase, 'law of the land,' in that instrument, and which were undoubtedly then received as their true meaning.
Do you know what the Court is saying here? I do. They are not suggesting the words "due process" has any substantive component to it. Rather, they are asserting it's "true meaning" is still binding. In fact they admit they want to adhere to it's true meaning.
More relevant language which confirms what I am saying.
It is difficult, at this day, to trace with precision all the proceedings had for these purposes in the earliest ages of the common law.
Notice what they are focusing upon here? Proceedings is the focus. Why? Because originally the words "due process" guaranteed only "procedure".
This brief sketch of the modes of proceeding to ascertain and enforce payment of balances due from receivers of the revenue in England
Again the Court is looking at the "proceedings" in interpreting the clause because they understood the words "due process" mean only one thing, "procedural" protection.
So here you cite a case which does not stand for substantive due process but rather a case where the Court goes to great extremes to understand the original meaning of the words "due process" in light and relevant to the facts before them. This case helps me more than it hurts and just really diminishes your argument that the original understanding of the words "due process" meant something more than procedural protection.
So your point on "authority" came back to bite you as the authority you cite hardly proves the point you sought to make about authority. All of the authority in this case, as the case itself, supports what I have been saying all along; the words "due process" were originally understood to guarantee only procedural protection.
So thanks for your help in making my argument and destroying your own. I am eternally grateful for your help in proving yourself wrong and helping me be right.
Do I really need to comment on the Westlaw remarks? No because the cases you have provided, and all of it's cited authority, as my own evidence, demonstrates what the words "due process" originally meant, namely procedural protection and nothing more. In fact the Westlaw account actually supports me than hurts me.
jurists who argued first, that the written constitution was the supreme law of the State and that judicial review could look only to that document in scrutinizing legislation and not to the ''unwritten law'' of ''natural rights
This is precisely what textualism requests. The text of the U.S. Constitution is controlling and only the Constitution can be controlling in scrutinizing legislation and not the "unwritten law" of natural rights. The entire concept of "substantive due process" has a philosophical underpinning that there does exist "natural rights" and these natural rights are protected by the word "liberty" in the 14th amendments due process clause. This is exactly how the Court strikes down state law or "scrutinizes" state law. They look to the word "liberty" and determine it has "substance" that it protects "fundamental rights" of the individual and these are "rights" which are not "written" anywhere in the U.S. Constitution but rather they are the "unwritten" fundamental rights the Court asserts the word "liberty" protects.
Textualism repudiates this approach as being extra textual and the Westlaw example you provide reinforces my argument. The jurists would despise what the Court does today in looking at "unwritten" law and finding "rights" in this unwritten law because the Court admits the "rights" they find are not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution. So these jurists this West article cites would actually repudiate Substantive Due Process. The JURISTS would reject Roe, Lawrence, Griswold, Loving, Meyers, Prince, and so forth because each case talked about a right which was not "written" in the U.S. Constitution but nonetheless was protected by the unwritten law of "fundamental rights, rights which our society deem so important and fundamental". So the source for fundamental rights according to the Court under substantive due process is the appeal to "what society has traditionally afforded protection and deemed so important as to be fundamental" is an appeal to the "unwritten law" because society and what it has traditionally afforded protection and deemed so important is not "written law" but "unwritten law". That is the unwritten law analysis the Court uses and it is a process and analysis these jurists would reject.
The jurists in the West article wanted to bind the Court to the "written" law of the constitution and nothing else. So any appeal to "what society has traditionally afforded protection and deemed important as to be fundamental" is a standard they would reject as it is found NOWHERE in the text of the U.S. Constitution. Hence, it is an unwritten legal standard they would not want.
More importantly, however, this demonstrates you fundamentally do not understand what the words "substantive due process" mean. I have already spent a lengthy post articulating what it means by citing U.S. Supreme Court cases and their language from each case which is a substantive due process case.
Quote:subject only to the specific prohibitions of the written constitution. The ''vested rights'' jurists thus found in the ''law of the land'' and the ''due process'' clauses of the state constitutions a restriction upon the substantive content of legislation, which prohibited, regardless of the matter of procedure, a certain kind or degree of exertion of legislative power altogether
LOL. Well this is not substantive due process but you have mistaken it for substantive due process. Further proof you do not know what substantive due process means. Textualists want the same thing. This is what Scalia meant when he said, "
Due process requires only two things, a validly enacted statute and a fair trial.
What Scalia means by a "validly enacted statute" is the statute must be "constitutional". No state can pass a law whose substance violates the U.S. Constitution. No state can pass a law where Congress is exclusively given this power in the U.S. Constitution. Hence, the U.S. Constitution is a check on the "substance" of state statutes and is the very nature of our constitutional system, a state cannot pass a law on a matter where such a matter is reserved to the federal government or in violation of some other provision of the U.S. Constitution and this is REQUIRED by the very nature of a constitutional system as opposed to any "substantive" reuirement but this is not "substantive due process". So textualists would agree with this statement by Westlaw. In fact Scalia, the nation's most prominent textualist and champion of originalism, would agree with the statement and admonish you, as I have, that this is not talking about "substantive due process" and you if you think so then you really do not know what "substantive due process" means.
With this said we are talking about something entirely different than what Westlaw is talking about and have said nothing which refutes me or helps you.
Principally, we are talking about what do the words "DUE PROCESS" mean? Textualists take an "originalist" approach and argue the "original understanding and meaning of the terms" is controlling. This would mean "procedure" and nothing more and Westlaw does not refute this at all. The Westlaw excerpts simply state a truism of our constitutional system, the states cannot pass a law on a subject matter (substance) which is reserved to the Federal government. That is not substantive due process and if you thought it was or believe it is, then you were wrong and do not know what "substantive due process" means.
But I do. In fact one of my posts even demonstrates substantive due process is where the Court looks at the word "liberty" in the 14th amendment and asserts it has a "substance" in that it protects a liberty/privacy interest and then based on the "importance" of the privacy interest what level of scrutiny is to be applied.
Had you actually bothered to read this post and the cases I cited you would not be confused as to what "substantive due process" means.
Then you provide some material, cases and so forth, which actually help my argument. You make this error simply because you are confused as to what "originalism" means and looks at and what substantive due process means.
But I know what it means. I have provided a bunch of cases illustrating what it means to the Court. I know the law on substantive due process and fundamental rights.
I have spent hours researching this subject. Constitutional law is my forte. My posts illustrate I know what I am talking about, especially the fact I am citing the correct cases and quoting them.
So while you may not want my legal opinion because I am admittedly arrogant this is not a good reason at all! In fact it is a bad reason. I DO KNOW what I am talking about. I do know the law, it's precedent and Supreme Court interpretation and this is evidenced by the cases I have cited. Additionally, I have a judicial philosophy that is based upon hours of research and thought. Yes I am arrogant because of this hard work I have done and because I know I am right.
Now while you may dislike my attitude make no mistak if you came to me for a legal opinion I would give the "current" law on the issue, whether I like it or not, and if you "asked" tell you why I think it is wrong. But make no mistake I'd be "right" in telling you what the legal precedent says, unlike some other people here, and wouldn't you want a "right" and "correct" legal opinion as opposed to a wrong one?
Now I have enjoyed the exchange. Good effort.