@steve reid,
Quote:
I've come to realise the Christian OT is not a copy of the Hebrew scriptures it is a translation of a translation, as such some words from the Hebrew scriptures when translated take on a meaning they didn't have, two examples
1.
Zardoz wrote:
The bible was very literal and very specific. How you can come up with something completely different is beyond me. Either the bible is the truth, or it is not. When does the change take place?
The meaning is lost in translation
I also found it confusing how a day in the Christian bible which I read as 24 hours could be interpreted as a thousand years, the link below made it clearer to me
Yom (Hebrew: יום) is a Biblical Hebrew word which occurs in the Hebrew Bible. The word is a generic term meaning "a period of time". In both Modern and Biblical Hebrew it is usually translated as a specific period of time (such as "day", "evening", "lifetime", or "year"[2]) based on context.
The same can be applied to the English word (DAY). Although a ‘DAY’ can be defined as one of the many revolution of a planet around its central axis, which in relation to the earth is 365 revolutions in one year or one orbit of the sun. That is the period of time for a day on earth, but on every other planet in our Solar System, a day is a different period of time. WE also use the word (DAY) as in , “Back in the day of the Roman Empire” etc. Again, a period in time.
The six separate time periods = cosmic days of Creation are referred to in Genesis 2: 4; as the six separate generations of the universe. On the first cosmic day only light was created, the first massive generation hydrogen stars.
Our sun and planets in this Solar System, were created on the third cosmic creative day or the third generation of the universe and it was only then that the planetary revolution time periods = days were created. And you believe that the bible says that this universe was created in six literal 24 hour days.
Nowhere does the bible say that the universe was created in six separate period of 24 hours.
Jubilees 4: 30; And he (ADAM) lacked seventy years of one thousand years; for one thousand years are as one day in the testimony of the heavens and therefore was it written concerning the tree of knowledge: ’On the day that ye eat thereof ye shall die.’ For this reason, he did not complete the years of this day; for he died during it.
The definition of a day Is one revolution of a heavenly body. There is only one heavenly body in our vicinity that revolves once in every thousand years.
Now, in reference to your confusion between "Parthenos and virgin."
It amazes me how any intelligent person can be deceived into believing the false teaching of the so-called virgin birth of the man Jesus.
The Hebrew has a specific term for ‘Virgin’ and that word is ‘Bethulah,’ which word is used in the Old Testament whenever a woman, who has never had any sexual contact with a man, is being referred too, but Isaiah does not use the word ‘Bethulah’ in the famous passage ‘Isaiah 7: 14,’ instead he uses the Hebrew ‘almah’ which refers to any woman of marriageable age, irrelevant as to her sexual status.
The Greek language did not have a specific word for virgin. The Greek ‘Parthenos’ refers to any youth, male or female, of marriageable age, irrelevant as to their sexual status, and denotes ‘virgin’ only by implication.
The young 13 years old unmarried Mary, was a ‘Parthenos,’ a young unmarried woman, who told the Messenger of God that she had never had sexual contact with a man, thereby implying that she was still, at that point in time, a virgin.
When the Septuagint was translated from the Hebrew to Greek, hundreds of years before Jesus, the Hebrew translators were forced to use the Greek word ‘Parthenos’ when translating the Hebrew ‘almah’ to the Greek, and as Matthew’s gospel was originally written in Hebrew, when it was later translated to Greek, the same word ‘Parthenos’ was used to translate the Hebrew ‘almah.’
‘Parthenos,’ was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it in reference to unmarried girls who were no longer virgins, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew, who translated Isaiah’s words, that (An unmarried woman would be with child etc) while being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning; were in no way implying that Mary was a virgin when they were forced to use the Greek term ‘Parthenos’ in translating Isiah 7: 14.
“The Greek word Parthenos (παρθένος) is ambiguous but the Hebrew term “Almah” [Unmarried Female] is absolute, and is erroneously translated from Isaiah 7: 14, to English in Matthew 1:23; as “virgin,” whereas according to Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible, the Hebrew term “almah,” carries the meaning, (Concealment---unmarried female.)”
