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A definition of morality

 
 
djbt
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 03:34 am
ebrown_p wrote:
The professor of the only philosophy course I ever took in college was a Hedonist.

This professor made a good case that Hedonism-- the belief that pleasure is the only thing that is intrinsically good-- is the only logical basis for a system of ethics.

A search for pleasure leads to a completely reasonable set of ethics. First, you can easily arrive at the point that you would sacrifice short term pleasure for a greater long term pleasure-- so the ethics of hard work and sacrifice are valid.

You can say that my faithfulness to my wife, my kind treatment of my kids and the fact I treat my neighbors well are all because my relationship with my family and community bring me lots of pleasure.

I am not sure if I completely buy it, but it beats the all-knowing judge model of morality.

I haven't found anything else even close to logical system of ethics.

What about utilitarianism?
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joefromchicago
 
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Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 07:51 am
Setanta wrote:
I don't make that assumption, i just prefer the notion.

Why?
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Setanta
 
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Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 07:57 am
Because a social contract gives the power of constraint to the people, and removes it from the hands of priests and demagogues. At the least, that is the hope of a reliance upon a social contract. Moralists not only wish to prohibit the "wrong," the "amoral," the "evil"--they seek to promote the "right," the "moral" and the "good." Working from a definition of "harm," one is not necessarily obliged to construct a false dichotomy of harm/benefit. One can simply prohibit that which is deemed harmful, without foisting off onto others prescriptions for their "right" behavior. What i have read in history suggests to me that for all the flaws of democratic governments, they far and away excel in comparison to oligarchy, monarchy or theocracy--and especially as oligarchy and monarchy are often priest-ridden institutions.
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 08:16 am
Setanta wrote:
Because a social contract gives the power of constraint to the people, and removes it from the hands of priests and demagogues.

That depends upon whose social contract you're talking about.

Setanta wrote:
Moralists not only wish to prohibit the "wrong," the "amoral," the "evil"--they seek to promote the "right," the "moral" and the "good."

And that's a bad thing?

Setanta wrote:
Working from a definition of "harm," one is not necessarily obliged to construct a false dichotomy of harm/benefit. One can simply prohibit that which is deemed harmful, without foisting off onto others prescriptions for their "right" behavior.

If you're suggesting that the definition of morality in the original post is unsatisfactory, I agree. I don't quite understand the benefit of replacing "bad" or "wrong" with "harm." On this point, I concur with fishin'.

Setanta wrote:
What i have read in history suggests to me that for all the flaws of democratic governments, they far and away excel in comparison to oligarchy, monarchy or theocracy--and especially as oligarchy and monarchy are often priest-ridden institutions.

Again, it depends upon what social contract you're talking about. Certainly Hobbes did not think that a social contract mandated a democratic form of government, and even Locke preferred a mixture of monarchical, aristocratic, and democratic elements in a well-run government.
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Setanta
 
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Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 08:29 am
Why do you assume that i am somehow constrained to adhere to the views of Hobbes or Locke?
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joefromchicago
 
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Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 10:14 am
Setanta wrote:
Why do you assume that i am somehow constrained to adhere to the views of Hobbes or Locke?

Why do you assume that I assumed that? After all, I noted that much depended on whose social contract you were talking about. Nowhere in my post did I state that Locke and Hobbes were the only choices.
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 11:00 am
That's good because, in fact, i am relying upon my own idea of a social conract, which i have been articulating here. That you may not think much of it is a matter of indifference to me. My views are informed by Hobbes, Locke, Montaigne and Rousseau's Le Contrat social and his essay Sur l'origine de l'inégalité--but are not exclusively restricted to what is to be found in those works.

Now let's all take a seventh inning stretch, and join Harry in a rousing chorus of Take Me Out to the Ballgame.
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 12:58 pm
Setanta wrote:
That's good because, in fact, i am relying upon my own idea of a social conract, which i have been articulating here.

I would be interested in seeing further details of it.

Setanta wrote:
That you may not think much of it is a matter of indifference to me.

Well, that you might think so is a matter of indifference to me as well, but I don't recall ever commenting, either negatively or positively, on your ideas of the social contract. Indeed, given that I don't know very much about those ideas, it would be premature of me to offer an opinion.

Setanta wrote:
My views are informed by Hobbes, Locke, Montaigne and Rousseau's Le Contrat social and his essay Sur l'origine de l'inégalité--but are not exclusively restricted to what is to be found in those works.

I'd be very interested to see how you square those disparate viewpoints.

Setanta wrote:
Now let's all take a seventh inning stretch, and join Harry in a rousing chorus of Take Me Out to the Ballgame.

With that I can find no reason to differ.
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fishin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 03:57 pm
djbt wrote:
'Harm' is less abstract than good/evil/right/wrong, since it can only refer to something that can be harmed (in the definition above, human beings, I'd extend that to anything that can feel pain). So while good/evil/right/wrong could refer to abstracts such as a belief or an act, harm, in this sense, cannot.


I would strongly disagree that "harm" is any less abstract than good/evil/right/wrong.

You seem to be trying to limit the definition to physical pain but let me offer this - Would you see it as moral for me to accuse you of commiting a crime that results in the loss of your spouse, children and your own personal freedom even though I may know full well that you weren't involved in the crime in any way?

Based on what you've expressed in the thread thusfar, that would be a morally acceptable behavior since I wasn't directly responsible for you feeling physical pain.

I would think that most people would see any action that unjustly causes them a loss of income, property, relationship, etc.. as a "harm". And that doesn't even get into the meta-physical aspects of theist thought.
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djbt
 
  1  
Reply Mon 29 Aug, 2005 04:46 pm
fishin' wrote:
You seem to be trying to limit the definition (of harm) to physical pain but let me offer this - Would you see it as moral for me to accuse you of commiting a crime that results in the loss of your spouse, children and your own personal freedom even though I may know full well that you weren't involved in the crime in any way?

Based on what you've expressed in the thread thusfar, that would be a morally acceptable behavior since I wasn't directly responsible for you feeling physical pain.

I do not see how you reach that conclusion. I expect that in this situation I would definitely consider myself harmed, which would make the act immoral, if the aim of morality is to minimise harm. I would have been harmed, in that I would experience sadness, loneliness, frustration, boredom, etc.

The reason it seems to me that harm is less contentious than evil, is because harm is directly experienced, whereas wrong/evil is not. There can be no dispute over whether or not someone feels harm (that is, any kind of pain - physical pain, distress, depression, boredom, etc.), only one person knows whether they are or not, the person who is experiencing it. It would be that experience of harm (/pain) that morality should act to limit.

But, to be honest, it seems to me now that Everitt's definition is basically just a utilitarian definition phrased in a different way, which is probably why I was attracted to it in the first place.

Talking of which, I don't think utilitarianism took much, if any, damage in its thread. joefromchicago, you disappeared from it... I'd love to revive it, if anyone has any thoughts...
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Ray
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 12:00 am
In saying that people being harmed is immoral, you are saying that harm is wrong. I don't see how it makes any difference.
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djbt
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 02:27 am
Hmmm... I'll have a go, very much off top of head...

The 'wrongness' of harm is due to what harm is not the fact that it is called 'wrong'. If harm could be concretely defined, then it would make the definition non-circular:

1) Morality = a system of morals
Morals = beliefs about what is right and wrong
Right = morally good
Wrong = morally evil
Morally good = good according to a morality
Morally evil = bad according to a morality
Morality = a system of beliefs about what is good and bad according to a morality.

...see, circular, as the definition refers to the word being defined.

2) Morality = a set of beliefs intended to influence behaviour with the consequence of limiting/reducing the harm that humans do.
Harm = An experience that the subject would prefer not to experience.

... less circular, as the definition doesn't refer to the word being defined.

Or do I need more sleep?
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spendius
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 03:27 am
djbt-

What do you do about different people having different ideas about what all these words mean.

To take a very simple example-it was common practice in the 16th,17th centuries for powerful men to take 13 year old girls as wives.Another one was the practice of torturing people to death in public.

Under your definitions both these practices were morally good at that time.Now they are considered morally bad.

If you want some more difficult examples you will find plenty in Mailer's books and those of many other people.

Is the gratuitous consumption of fossil fuels morally good or bad?

Your ideas are a trifle wooly for a www philosophy thread I'm afraid.
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djbt
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 03:54 am
spendius wrote:
djbt-

What do you do about different people having different ideas about what all these words mean.

Well... yes, clearly if someone felt that 'harm' meant a small orange fruit, or that 'influence' meant to cut one's hair in a mullet, then the argument wouldn't make much sense...

However, I have defined the words I thought necessary to define in this context (I will define more if necessary), so disagreement should be focused on the argument, not the words used to express it.

spendius wrote:
To take a very simple example-it was common practice in the 16th,17th centuries for powerful men to take 13 year old girls as wives. Another one was the practice of torturing people to death in public.

Presumably your use of the word 'take' implies that the 13 year old girls had no choice, and, indeed, were opposed to the marriage. Is this what you meant? If so, then clearly they would have been experiencing harm, regardless of what any prevailing attitudes, then or now, said about it.

And you cannot seriously be suggesting that someone being tortured to death would be experiencing no harm?

(Just to be clear, harm provisionally defined as: 'An experience that the subject would prefer not to experience' in this context)

spendius wrote:
Under your definitions both these practices were morally good at that time.Now they are considered morally bad.

What? Please, explain, using my definition, how these could be considered morally good. (Hint: I haven't anywhere suggested a definition for 'morally good' by Everitt's definition of morality, principally because, in his definition, morality is a tool to limit harm, not to judge good from bad. I guess you could say that something were morally good if harm had been limited to the greatest extent possible, but no-where is there any suggestion that moral good = in accordance with the prevailing views of the time).

spendius wrote:
If you want some more difficult examples you will find plenty in Mailer's books and those of many other people.

I'll have a look, thanks for the reference.

spendius wrote:
Is the gratuitous consumption of fossil fuels morally good or bad?

I suspect that one could build a strong argument showing that consumption of fossil fuels causes harm/will cause harm to many people/animals, so, by Everitt's definition, a moral act would be one which limits this harm, as much as possible (bearing in mind the danger of causing other harm in doing so, of course).

spendius wrote:
Your ideas are a trifle wooly for a www philosophy thread I'm afraid.

Perhaps Letty could use them to knit that nice soft jumper for you.
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ebrown p
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 06:54 am
Spendius,

I am with djbt here-- and your examples are pretty close to the ones that I would have used to support them.

First, arranged marriages... If all girl in a culture get married when they are 13 (usually to older men), then harm would come to the girls who are not married.

There are several cultures where this happened. Our current morals on mating are very specific to modern society-- they very simply would not work in a pre-industrial society.

Morality in any society is for "insiders". Every society defines "outsiders" to whom you can harm without breaking any moral laws.

It would seem barbaric to strap someone in a chair, and then connect a very strong electric current to kill them. This certainly causes harm.

Yet in our own society this is considered ethical.
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spendius
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 07:43 am
djbt and ebrown_p-

Okay-it's a serious debate.I'm not used to that on here which explains some looseness.

I accept your points.

What is your view then on voluntary harm such as athletes taking drugs which will harm them.I am in favour of letting them take anything they wish but we have erected a whole system on the basis that the potential harm they will do to themselves and others who follow their example is morally wrong.

The other examples I gave were merely in the service of pointing out relativity in morals and definitions of "good".They weren't very relevant anyway to ordinary living and general discourse.

ebrown_p's 3rd paragraph suggests a utilitarian approach.What works.

You might clue me in on your position on the different life expectancy rates by class and occupation and,indeed,nationality.I am disposed to think that you both view a class system involving such discrepancies as morally "wrong".

Is that the case?
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logicalunit42
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 08:01 am
Re: A definition of morality
djbt wrote:
Just stumbled across a definition/description of 'morality', that put it a way which made it rather less abstract that in definitions I'd heard before. It was:

[i]The Non-existence of God[/i], p.248, Nicholas Everitt wrote:
Morality is a way (the best way we have so far found) of limiting the colossal harm which people can do to each other.


Unlike 'a system of morals', and 'a system of beliefs concerning right and wrong and/or good and evil', this definition does not have the somewhat circular requirement of agreement on what 'morals', 'right', 'wrong', 'good' or 'evil' mean. It only require that we agree on what 'harm' means.

So, if this definition were accepted, and 'harm' defined adequately, could we move towards an non-theistic objective morality?


that isn't a definition. thats an explaination of what morality does. not its definition.
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ebrown p
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 08:22 am
Spendius,

I make a difference between personal morality, and societal morality.

Social morality-- i.e what laws and mores I support in the context of my society-- is utilitarian by necessity. I am living in a society that is made of individuals who, although they have different desires and beliefs, I need to get along with.

I might support bans on performance enhancing drugs for athletes because I believe this would make a better society. It may even effect me, as my son is an athlete and will live a better life if he does not have the pressure of competing with peers who use steroids (or feel the need to take them himself).

I may support similar bans even on issues that I am certain will never effect me. A stable society is to my advantage.

(Yes I am aware of where this argument leads, and I stand behind it even though I am in favor of issues like homosexual marriage. That's what democracy is about.)

Personal morality is what the decisions I make as an individual. A system of Personal morality based on hedonism is logical.

Personal Morality trumps Social Morality.

Social morality is a concession based on the fact that as I am seeking a pleasurable life, I must live and work with other people.

My utilitarian view on laws and social policy is really a part of a Hedonistic effort to live in a society that will benefit me.

This leads to a couple of strange, yet logically consistant conclusions. There are laws that I support (as a way to make a better society) that I am willing to break (because doing so benefits me or my family without causing "harm" to anyone else).
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 08:22 am
djbt wrote:
I do not see how you reach that conclusion. I expect that in this situation I would definitely consider myself harmed, which would make the act immoral, if the aim of morality is to minimise harm. I would have been harmed, in that I would experience sadness, loneliness, frustration, boredom, etc.

If the aim of morality is to minimize harm, then that merely invites the question: why should we minimize harm? If the answer is "all things considered, less harm is better than more harm," then I think we can conclude that less harm is good and more harm is bad. And if that's the case, then "harm/no harm" is just another way of saying "bad/good."

djbt wrote:
But, to be honest, it seems to me now that Everitt's definition is basically just a utilitarian definition phrased in a different way, which is probably why I was attracted to it in the first place.

That sounds about right.

djbt wrote:
Talking of which, I don't think utilitarianism took much, if any, damage in its thread. joefromchicago, you disappeared from it... I'd love to revive it, if anyone has any thoughts...

I must have been distracted by some other thread. If you want to resurrect the utilitarianism debate, I'll be willing to join.
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spendius
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 Aug, 2005 08:43 am
{quote]
The Non-existence of God, p.248, Nicholas Everitt wrote:
Morality is a way (the best way we have so far found) of limiting the colossal harm which people can do to each other.[/quote].

How far is that from "refereed selfishness"?
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