spendius wrote:djbt-
What do you do about different people having different ideas about what all these words mean.
Well... yes, clearly if someone felt that 'harm' meant a small orange fruit, or that 'influence' meant to cut one's hair in a mullet, then the argument wouldn't make much sense...
However, I have defined the words I thought necessary to define in this context (I will define more if necessary), so disagreement should be focused on the argument, not the words used to express it.
spendius wrote:To take a very simple example-it was common practice in the 16th,17th centuries for powerful men to take 13 year old girls as wives. Another one was the practice of torturing people to death in public.
Presumably your use of the word 'take' implies that the 13 year old girls had no choice, and, indeed, were opposed to the marriage. Is this what you meant? If so, then clearly they would have been experiencing harm, regardless of what any prevailing attitudes, then or now, said about it.
And you cannot seriously be suggesting that someone being tortured to death would be experiencing no harm?
(Just to be clear, harm provisionally defined as: 'An experience that the subject would prefer not to experience' in this context)
spendius wrote:Under your definitions both these practices were morally good at that time.Now they are considered morally bad.
What? Please, explain, using my definition, how these could be considered morally good. (Hint: I haven't anywhere suggested a definition for 'morally good' by Everitt's definition of morality, principally because, in his definition, morality is a tool to limit harm, not to judge good from bad. I guess you could say that something were morally good if harm had been limited to the greatest extent possible, but no-where is there any suggestion that moral good = in accordance with the prevailing views of the time).
spendius wrote:If you want some more difficult examples you will find plenty in Mailer's books and those of many other people.
I'll have a look, thanks for the reference.
spendius wrote:Is the gratuitous consumption of fossil fuels morally good or bad?
I suspect that one could build a strong argument showing that consumption of fossil fuels causes harm/will cause harm to many people/animals, so, by Everitt's definition, a moral act would be one which limits this harm, as much as possible (bearing in mind the danger of causing other harm in doing so, of course).
spendius wrote:Your ideas are a trifle wooly for a www philosophy thread I'm afraid.
Perhaps Letty could use them to knit that nice soft jumper for you.