Re: Can morality be objective in a world without God?
BubbaGumbo wrote:I've heard many individuals posit that God is needed to create objective moral standards. After pondering such a statement, I have come to the conclusion that it couldn't be further from the truth. In fact, the existence of a God is irrelevant to the debate on the objectivity/subjectivity of morals.
Although I see where you're going, I find two problematic points with your quiry.
Quote:Now that is my argument for morality being objective, next is my simple argument for why God is irrelevant.
Let's assume God does exist and outlines a set of behaviors that are immoral. How is this any different then societies outlining what is moral/immoral? It is moral subjectivity on a higher level, as you are now only getting God's opinion of what is moral. Is it not possible for God to label something as moral, when in reality the action is immoral? Or does that contradict the idea of God?
Fair enough; but your alternative doesn't answer
why an individual acts in the first place. First, all morality, we can agree, is based on some form of action. The doubled-edged question is: what kind of action, and why? If God reveals a set of behaviors, we might inquire in why we ought to follow them (salvation maybe?). One might respond, "Well, given that God is the creator of the world (s), and since He (She?) knows better, it might serve my interests to follow his (her) call. This eliminates the theistic view that morality is subjective; since God is
reality, and truth is correspondence with reality, it would follow that God's mandate is the objective standard to follow. This eliminates your point that God is irrelevant to morality.
Quote:My first belief is that objective moral standards exist categorically. If person A randomly walks up to person B and kills him for fun, then person A has committed an immoral act. Now some will argue that if person A's culture condones and promotes such behavior then person A was acting morally. I disagree, as the way societies classify behavior should not affect that behavior's moral standing. Behavior "x"(in this case random killing) just is, always has been, and always will be morally wrong/right, no matter how a societiy's feelings towards it change. Morality exists in a realm alongside laws of nature (things like the creation of the universe, gravity, consciousness etc.), in that such things remain unchanged and true to their original cause/form regardless of how we humans perceive them.
I find this example fallacious. You don't explain how person A killing person B is objectively immoral. For one thing, to say that morality is entirely dependant upon nature leads to moral confusion. Just what natural law leads to objective morality? When is an action un-natural? What action has intrinsic value? What is natural anyways? Person A killing person B is just as natural as anything else--hence the reason natural ontology sinks into moral nihilism and not moral objectivism.
Morality is boiled down to action. Simply: what proper action should one take, why someone ought to take that action over another, and the guidelines to take those actions. This, of course, requires free will and the epistemic prerequisites. If one chooses to live without 'God', then one will live one's life according to one's own morality (and for one's own separate reasons); if one chooses to live for God, then one will live one's life according to God's will (whatever that will might be).
I hope this helps.
--Ibn