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We ought to have gone to war in 1938 …

Forums: English As A Second Language
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paok1970
 
Reply Sat 5 Jan, 2019 01:16 pm
The quote below is from the preface of the novel "Munich" by Robert Harris:

‘We ought to have gone to war in 1938 … September 1938 would have been the most favourable date.’ - Adolf Hitler, February 1945

My question is the following:

Why is it "We ought to have gone to war in 1938…" and not "We should have gone to war in 1938..."?

Thank you
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Type: Question • Score: 1 • Views: 4,616 • Replies: 1

 
Sturgis
 
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Reply Sun 6 Jan, 2019 03:15 pm
@paok1970,
Ought and should are synonymous (same meaning). The use of ought was the author's choice.
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