@neptuneblue,
If Roe v Wade is overturned, then the matter will go back to the states, the way it was before Roe v Wade. In Texas, where 'Jane Roe' was denied an abortion, abortion was legal with a police report of rape. Roe had reported rape but later admitted she was lying. In any case, she ended up not having the abortion and later she regretted having her case used to legalize abortion.
Now that Dna testing can protect men from being used as scapegoats to protect other men, you could have laws against abortion that would hold men accountable for causing the pregnancy.
So now you're asking what if the people involved get pregnant by accident, should that be a crime? Sex outside of wedlock used to be a crime, I think. Someone recently told me that there's a Turkish law that you have to wait six months for a divorce in case the woman is pregnant.
The traditional assumption with waiting until marriage for sex is that you are prepared for pregnancy to happen if you get married. Nowadays it is recognized that rape can occur within marriage, so a woman who doesn't want to get pregnant, whose husband still gets her to have intercourse anyway, has been raped/coerced and so she could defer the liability for abortion to him that way. That would lead me to question how a man can prove that sex was consensual without getting some kind of documentation as proof, but that is another issue.
So, yes, if abortion is illegal and there is no claim/report of rape, then the woman would be taking sole responsibility for the abortion. I'm sure some cases will occur where women argue some form of insanity, just as there have been men who have tried to use insanity as a defense in cases of sexual assault.
That doesn't mean that accidental pregnancy would be illegal, though, although I guess anything can be outlawed if a legislature and executive agree to it and the courts don't overturn the law. There may be some constitutional reason pregnancy is protected against legal restrictions, though. That would be an interesting supreme court case if a state made a law against accidental pregnancy and it went to the supreme court. It could happen if, say, some state decides to limit the number of children eligible for public support, the way the Chinese government does, for example. In that case, the mother would probably sue the state for rejecting her support claim and then the court would have to decide if the fact the pregnancy was accidental would matter. I don't think it would, though, because that would imply somehow that getting pregnant by accident was better than getting pregnant intentionally, which wouldn't make sense. It's still a good question whether the constitution would allow governments to set limits to how many of a mother's children are eligible for support.