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Grand Unifying Theory of Everything (part 1)

 
 
Reply Sat 25 Dec, 2004 02:26 pm
This is the first part of an essay I am trying to write in which I use a logical thought process to try and reach objective conclusions about the nature of the Universe's existence. You should find this extract interesting (note that I have a lot more to say). Please read and let me know what you think. I would appreciate your help very much. Please feel free to email me if you want to.







Given that the Universe exists within space, it seems appropriate that an endeavour to better understand the Universe should start by establishing the limits of how space could exist. In order to do this, one could consider what it is that would result from ?'Zero' existence, for 'Zero' is an absolute in itself.

?'Zero' is a concept that is used to denote the existence of ?'nothing'. Thus, if ?'Zero' were to exist in space, the result would be that space would have nothing existing within it. Space would be totally empty, and totally empty space must, therefore, be a limit of how space could exist. It seems reasonable to refer to this manifestation of ?'Zero' as ?'The Nothing'.

In that ?'Zero' implies the existence of nothing, the fact that we exist is proof enough that ?'Zero' does not exist. It also implies that it must be possible for space to not have ?'nothing' existing within it. In other words, it must be possible for ?'something' to exist within space, ?'something' not being ?'nothing'. This is rather obvious, since to say that ?'nothing' exists implies that ?'something' does not exist. Likewise, to say that space is empty implies that it is empty of something. ?'Nothing' is the absence of something.

Interestingly, what this means is that ?'nothing' and ?'something' are actually equal and opposite, for just as ?'nothing' is the absence of something, ?'something' must be the absence of nothing. Thus, if space were to be entirely full of ?'something', this would, in fact, be another manifestation of ?'Zero', equal and opposite to ?'The Nothing'. It seems appropriate that this manifestation of ?'Zero' be referred to as ?'The Something', it being another limit of how space could exist.

In light of this, the general assumption that ?'Zero' only has one manifestation is actually incorrect. ?'Zero' has two equal and opposite manifestations: ?'The Nothing' and ?'The Something'. One might consider ?'The Nothing' as if it were ?'-0' and ?'The Something' as if it were ?'+0'.

In that ?'The Nothing' and ?'The Something' are both manifestations of ?'Zero', it follows that the existence of one would automatically imply that the other exists at the same time.

This said, the concepts of ?'The Nothing' and ?'The Something' must, therefore, be logical impossibilities, for each can only exist without the existence of the other.

With ?'The Nothing' and ?'The Something' existing at the same time, ?'Zero' existence would actually be a state where ?'nothing' and ?'something' exist within the same space. Thus, the true result of ?'Zero' existence would be a state that could be referred to as ?'The Nothing-Something'.

Having said this, it would be wholly incorrect to say that ?'The Nothing-Something' is a manifestation of ?'Zero', for it is not ?'nothing' or ?'something'. In truth, ?'The Nothing-Something' is ?'everything', ?'everything' being ?'nothing' and ?'something'. For this reason, ?'The Nothing-Something' is not ?'Zero' but ?'One and All' (1 and infinity). It is ?'All' and ?'All' is ?'One'. It is the absolute.

In light of this, it follows that the concept of ?'Zero' is itself a logical impossibility, since the very requirements for its existence result in something that cannot be described as ?'Zero'. ?'Zero' is ?'One and All' and ?'One and All' is not ?'Zero'.

Now, if one refers back to the definitions of ?'nothing' and ?'something', one can see that if ?'nothing' were to not exist, then ?'something' would, and if ?'something' were to not exist, then ?'nothing' would. What this means is that it would be impossible for neither ?'nothing' nor ?'something' to exist, thus implying that it would be impossible for ?'The Nothing-Something' not to exist.

This implies that ?'The Nothing-Something' must exist and that the Universe is ?'The Nothing-Something'.

Seeing as this is must be the case, the whole concept of the Universe having had a ?'beginning' is a complete misunderstanding, because it implies that there was a time when ?'The Nothing-Something' did not exist. Since it would be impossible for ?'The Nothing-Something' to not exist, the Universe could not have had a beginning or ever have an end. It simply is, has been, and always will be.
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 901 • Replies: 9
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fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Dec, 2004 05:15 pm
Welcome to A2K

Although your conclusions so far are familiar to anyone who has read Buddhist doctrines, your premise about what is "given", your attempt at "objectivity", and the very idea that "logical reasoning" can be utilised in reaching that conclusion are all philosophically problematic.

If you follow up many of the philosophy topics in this forum, especially with reference to "reality" or "truth" you will find heated debate over these issues. These often involve references to "non-binary logic", "anthropocentrism", and "languaging". Godels theorem has also been discussed with respect to the epistemological status of axioms in the coherence of systems.
0 Replies
 
timberlandko
 
  1  
Reply Sat 25 Dec, 2004 06:21 pm
See This Response to your identical question over in Science and Mathematics, misteryule (and welcome to A2K, BTW). As observed, prolly ain't a real good idea ta quit yer day job ta concentrate on yer present project.


Oh, and not much point postin' somethin' more than once around here - no real problem with that, just not much point to it. A topic that's gonna get attention is gonna get it just about where ever it gets placed, the way things work hereabouts. Lots easier to keep track of just one converstion, too.
0 Replies
 
Johan
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 06:40 pm
The topic you write is something I have thought about some 20 years ago and I still do at some moments.
You started with the following statement :
Quote:
nothing
and
Quote:
something
are actually equal and opposite.
I started with :
Quote:
nothing
=
Quote:
all = everything = infinity


That idea came from
Quote:
Entropy
theory.

Quote:
A world
will be created when
Quote:
limits
are made.
Imagine a blank paper, it is nothing. Imagine that the blank paper is completely made black. There still within the paper nothing, there is no drawing, although it is in fact completely
Quote:
black
or
Quote:
all


Image that you draw a line. Then there is something. There is a limit.


I think that
Quote:
limits
are very important.
And when I heard about Einstein, then I saw a real limit.
There is a maximum speed... the speed of light.
That maximum speed of light seems very important for the creation of our universe.

And than I saw also that
Quote:
time
was not so linear anymore, which makes that time is another dimension.
Everything is realy relative... within the Universe.

To end it, I also believe that there was always something and we will always have something.
0 Replies
 
shunammite
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 08:32 pm
Gravity? Substance exerts an attractive force on other substance, the more substantial, the more forceful?

And where there is nothing there is no forceful attraction?

"hope that helps"

HAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHA!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
0 Replies
 
rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 09:25 pm
Re: Grand Unifying Theory of Everything (part 1)
misteryule wrote:
Given that the Universe exists within space,...


Sorry, gonna have to stop you there before you go any further.

The Universe does not exist within space. If anything, space exists within the Universe, but not the other way around.
0 Replies
 
Ray
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 10:43 pm
I'm with Rosborne on the space thing.

Also, the expansion of the universe might be the expansion of space between matter or some sort of substance and not something going outward into 'void'. That's speculation though.

I find it illogical that nothing = something. By definition nothing is the absence of something. Whether an absolute 'nothing' can exist, I'm unsure of.
0 Replies
 
rufio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 10:53 pm
I'm not sure I agree with the theory that "nothing" is something tangeable, that can be equal or opposite to anything. Nothing is not merely the absence of "something" it is the absence of everything. It's a linguistic crutch to describe an abstraction that doesn't and can't exist in any way, hypothetical or otherwise. The same for something a little more conventional, like a hole. Then you get semantic absurdities like having a person named "nobody" who children blame for braking things, and being able to "carry around" a hole in your pocket (or take it out and put it in something else, ala Yellow Submarine).
0 Replies
 
Ray
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 11:13 pm
Quote:
I'm not sure I agree with the theory that "nothing" is something tangeable, that can be equal or opposite to anything. Nothing is not merely the absence of "something" it is the absence of everything. It's a linguistic crutch to describe an abstraction that doesn't and can't exist in any way, hypothetical or otherwise. The same for something a little more conventional, like a hole. Then you get semantic absurdities like having a person named "nobody" who children blame for braking things, and being able to "carry around" a hole in your pocket (or take it out and put it in something else, ala Yellow Submarine).


I think I see your point. It's all the vagueness in the semantics. However, a person may use 'nothing' as the absence of a certain thing, like 'nothing' is in a bottle, meaning that no observeable object is in the bottle. This nothing is a word that depends on context. Absolute 'nothing' in the sense of the absence of everything is weird. There are two things to be considered: do you mean by 'nothing' that it is the absence of all concepts? or is 'nothing' the absence of all things and that it doesn't matter if we can see it as a concept...
0 Replies
 
rufio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 20 Jan, 2005 11:21 pm
Since he said in the first post that our existence disproves any ides of "nothing" that he meant absolute nothing (he also said that "nothing" was an absolute). When we say that there is "nothing in the bottle" or that there is a "hole in the ground", I would classify that as an idiom. A rather more linguistically universal idiom, but an idiom nonetheless.
0 Replies
 
 

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