@Leadfoot,
There are MANY instances where the New Testament biblical translations differ in massive ways.
This is why there are so many religious denominations.
Since there are no originals in existence one cannot say which translation is the best and where it may have been corrupted.
Then there is the issue of whether the Aramaic translations are more accurate than the Greek translations.
Scholars vehemently disagree whether the Aramaic was written first by the apostles before the Greek.
The prevailing opinion is that the Greek was written first even though Paul in the New Testament clearly states the Aramaic was written first.
Regardless of what was written first the originals were copied and recopied until the scribes began to take liberties in trying to "clarify" the text. The KJV of the Bible was translated only from one of the numerous translations where the Aramaic texts differ from the Greek in many respects. The Bible also (I think) states the apostles themselves saw to the translations.
Many of the errors are not trivial and consider there were no chapter names and verse numbers in the translations and no punctuation.
Things like this happen.
Luke 23:43 (KJV)
And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.
Comment: The punctuation was added to this by translators.
There is a problem here.
(The first unmanned Apollo mission to the moon blew up in mid air because of a misplaced comma in the software program.)
Verily I say unto you, today thou shalt be with me in paradise.
Or... Verily I say unto you today, thou shalt be with me in paradise (someday in the future).
Depending on where the comma is placed one's understanding of paradise is instantaneous after the death of the malefactors and Jesus, OR the other is that paradise is something that occurs sometime in the future.
The way the comma is supplied it is instantaneous, today thou shalt be with me in paradise.
Even though according to other scriptures Jesus was in the grave three days and three nights...
How could the malefactor be with Jesus in paradise on THAT day if he Jesus was sill in the grave?
Numerous times spirit is substituted for soul and in some places words simply appear that are not in any of the other translations in either language. (obvious additions)
We even have Josephus and other historians quoting these passages before the additions we added.
And then there is the apocryphal writings found that predate the translations and leave out entire sections (including the virgin birth and Jesus' death and resurrection).
Yet we are supposed to believe the word of God is "pure".
Psalm 12:6
The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
Comment: Well over time the words have become adulterated and in some instance they may even say the opposite of what they were originally intended to say. Who really knows?
The Old Testament has much less corruptions that occurred over time because of a numbering system the Hebrews used with their alphabet to insure fewer errors when copying.
The bottom line is the New (and Old) Testament cannot be trusted on surface value.
There is perhaps no possible way to get back to the original intended meaning of the authors.
Just live life with great love and hope for a better tomorrow for all living creatures.
...and then there is the Holy Spirit and holy spirit and Lord and lord...
These capital letters were added by the translators too.
Most times when you see the words lord or spirit you have to figure out in context who or what it is talking about. Often it is ambiguous.