I just noticed that about 4.7 million Americans are unable to vote, voting laws that bar people with felony convictions from the polls. In some states, even citizens on probation can't vote, in a couple of stes the ban is permanent.
One nation? Hardly.
- does this mean that someone, who passed the red traffic lights and was convicted for that, can't vote (in those states) lifelong?
- what's the history of this (and legal reasons)?
In Germany, in principle, anybody who has possessed German nationality for at least one year is eligible to stand for election as long as he or she has reached the age of 18 on the day on which the election is held and has neither been disenfranchised nor lost the eligibility to stand for election or hold public office as a result of a ruling by a judge ("passive voting entitlement").
This happens very rarely and only with some 'capital crimes' against democracy, the state or ots organs (preparation of a war of aggression, espionage, high treason, unconstitutional attacks against the forces etc) and those "election-related" (like election fraud etc.).