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Sat 5 Oct, 2013 12:03 pm
My grammar book organizes verbs under "Intransitive Verbs that can be used Transitively" and also "Transitive Verbs that can be used Intransitively."
Since most verbs can be used either way, is there a reason that they are categorized in this way? Wouldn't all verbs just be used either T or I, without being considered a primarily an "Intransitive verb" or "Transitive Verb?" Or do verbs have a way that they are considered to be most likely used?
@sali,
sali wrote:Since most verbs can be used either way
I wouldn't agree that "most" verbs can be used either way.
@sali,
Quote:I wouldn't agree that "most" verbs can be used either way.
Nor would I
Quote:Since most verbs can be used either way, is there a reason that they are categorized in this way?
As in most all cases of this sort Sali--or many anyway--I'm sure you'll find the classification important in many other instances
Quote:Or do verbs have a way that they are considered to be most likely used?
I'm sure Sali you'll find this to be the case. Maybe Con, who's much better at this sort of thing--and more readily willing than I--could provide a few examples