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Fri 5 Apr, 2013 08:25 am
Hi everyone New member here and first question. I hope that someone can explain this to me.
'they offered him a drink'
Here 'him' is the indirect object and 'a drink' the direct object.
But:
'they offered a drink to him'
Is 'drink' now the indirect object and 'him' the direct object? Is that correct? If not could someone explain to me why not?...
Thanking you in advance
Both of your sentences MEAN the same. Diagrammed, they would be:
They / offered / drink
(to) him
They/ offered / drink
to > him