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Can an indirect object become a direct object?

 
 
Djbxx1
 
Reply Fri 5 Apr, 2013 08:25 am
Hi everyone New member here and first question. I hope that someone can explain this to me. 

'they offered him a drink'

Here 'him' is the indirect object and 'a drink' the direct object.

 But:

'they offered a drink to him'

Is 'drink' now the indirect object and 'him' the direct object? Is that correct? If not could someone explain to me why not?... 


Thanking you in advance
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PUNKEY
 
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Reply Fri 5 Apr, 2013 06:02 pm
Both of your sentences MEAN the same. Diagrammed, they would be:


They / offered / drink
(to) him

They/ offered / drink
to > him

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