1
   

Can 'proportional to' be replaced by 'dependent upon'?

 
 
Swapnil
 
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 09:31 am
"Gravity is inversely proportional to distance between the objects."
-- Can 'inversely proportional to' be replaced by 'inversely dependent upon'?
 
Ragman
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 09:39 am
@Swapnil,
no.
0 Replies
 
timur
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 09:40 am
No because it isn't.

Quote:
the force of gravity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two objects
Swapnil
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 09:52 am
@timur,
I know it's the square of distance which's inversely proportional, but it can be concluded that it indirectly depends on the distance. I'm not calculation the gravity, I'm just stating the inverse dependence of distance on the gravity.
Anyways, let's leave science.
I wanted to know if it's logically correct to say 'inversely dependent' rather than 'inversely proportional'.
timur
 
  3  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 09:56 am
@Swapnil,
Again, no.

Inversely dependent means you can affect a random ratio to the equation, which is not the case with inversely proportional, where the ratio is a fixed one.
Swapnil
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 10:31 am
@timur,
Thanks again!
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 01:41 pm
@timur,
Quote:
Inversely dependent means you can affect a random ratio to the equation, which is not the case with inversely proportional, where the ratio is a fixed one.


So if, as you suggest, inversely proportional has a stricter meaning than inversely dependent, then inversely dependent can be substituted for inversely proportional. However, inversely proportional cannot necessarily be substituted for inversely dependent.
0 Replies
 
timur
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 02:01 pm
Markr wrote:
However, inversely proportional cannot necessarily be substituted for inversely dependent.


Which, in the end, is the answer to the question, don't you find?
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 02:07 pm
@timur,
Actually, no. The question was equivalent to, "Can inversely dependent be substituted for inversely proportional?"
timur
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 02:13 pm
@markr,
I'm not good at nitpicking, Mark..
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 02:21 pm
@timur,
Really? You consider proper application of your own statement to the question that was asked nitpicking? It changes the answer.
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 23 Feb, 2013 02:33 pm
@timur,
You sell yourself short. Your reply (with the red ribbon) is evidence of that. And I honestly mean that in a very positive way.
Swapnil
 
  1  
Reply Tue 5 Mar, 2013 03:45 am
@markr,
Thanks for correcting me & Timur Smile
I've de-selected Timur's reply as the answer, by the way
0 Replies
 
Swapnil
 
  1  
Reply Tue 5 Mar, 2013 03:48 am
@timur,
It's okay, I still give you credit for explaining the difference Smile
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

New Propulsion, the "EM Drive" - Question by TomTomBinks
The Science Thread - Discussion by Wilso
Why do people deny evolution? - Question by JimmyJ
Are we alone in the universe? - Discussion by Jpsy
Fake Science Journals - Discussion by rosborne979
Controvertial "Proof" of Multiverse! - Discussion by littlek
 
  1. Forums
  2. » Can 'proportional to' be replaced by 'dependent upon'?
Copyright © 2021 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.05 seconds on 10/28/2021 at 09:25:38