@Setanta,
The use of "he" for an indeterminate person
is sexist. Let me try outlining my argument as to why again.
1. It erases the opposite gender's existence.
2. Depending on the sentence's content it can support sexist narratives (as in my "The artists acts in accordance with his aesthetic persuasion." example).
3. It gives males linguistic dominance over women.
It's no good saying that "he" is taken as universal, since that itself is indicative of the kind of sexism I'm talking about. It is an artefact of language use which shows us how women are regarded as unimportant compared with men, which historically is true. Women were regarded as unimportant compared with men.
This is my opinion, it is based on our history and our culture, and I'd be very interested for someone to suggest an explanation for the fact that "he" is/was used universally which differs from what I say. Genuinely. Everything I've heard in opposition to this point so far seems ahistorical to me.
It is arguably in the sense that my impression was that the "he" as a universal pronoun is an antiquated expression, and that naturally the dissonance of using one gender pronoun to refer to both genders would strike people as sexist. I am less sure of this impression subsequent to this discussion though, and probably wouldn't argue that
majority point so confidently.
Can I ask if you'd be comfortable with this if every time you read a pronoun referring to an indeterminate person "she" was used?