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Thu 28 Jun, 2012 07:55 am
if i say x_t is distributed over uniform distribution ((y_t) -1, (y_t)) does it mean that x_t takes values between
(y_t)-1 and y_t ?
y_t is on (0,1)
@hepimizucuz,
Yes, although it is more usually expressed along these lines:
The random variable,
X is uniformly distributed between (a, b)]
ie. along the interval from a to b
all values of X are equally likely.
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