Is the usage "to befall" correct here when the tragedy had actually befallen the victim?

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Doctor stabbed to death two days after warning in The Lancet

We are writing to inform you about the latest tragedy to befall a Chinese doctor. Xu Guangjun died 2 days after publication of the Correspondence in The Lancet entitled “Facing up to the threat in China” (Nov 20, p 1823).1

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http://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(11)60231-6/fulltext?version=printerFriendly

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Type: Question • Score: 1 • Views: 1,381 • Replies: 5

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Quote:

Is the usage "to befall" correct here when the tragedy had actually befallen the victim?

Yes.

1 Reply

@OmSigDAVID,

OmSigDAVID wrote:

Quote:
Is the usage "to befall" correct here when the tragedy had actually befallen the victim?
Yes.

Thanks.

But "to befall" seems to mean "will befall."

1 Reply

@oristarA,

"To befall" is the infinitive inflection of befall. "Will befall" is the future inflection.

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@InfraBlue,

InfraBlue wrote:

"To befall" is the infinitive inflection of befall. "Will befall" is the future inflection.

Not altogether, my friend. "To do" means "will do" in a title of an article, esp. news.

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@oristarA,

Ok, but in the context of your sentence "to befall" is used in the infinitive inflection.

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Is the usage "to befall" correct here when the tragedy had actually befallen the victim?

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