want a conclusion

the standard deviations were 156.91 and 116.16 on AGE?????

A low standard deviation indicates that the data points tend to be very close to the mean, whereas high standard deviation indicates that the data are spread out over a large range of values. Since the females have the lower SD (116) that means they would be effected closer to the age of 35, say in the range of ages of 31 to 39. Whereas the males have the higher SD (157) that means they would be effected not as close to age 38, say in the range of ages of 33 to 43. I think that a math major can give an exact calculation.

Another generalization is the females are likely effected close to the age of 35, whereas the males being effected are less easily defined to a specific age but let's use age 38.

A mean of 35 with a standard deviation of 116 means that you can expect 95% of the ages to be within the range -197 to 267 assuming a normal distribution. Since that is completely absurd, there is obviously an error in the problem statement hence JPB's comment. That is the only reasonable conclusion.