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Should "after his kind" be "after its kind?"

 
 
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 06:51 am


Context:

[kjv] And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.
[bbe] And God said, Let grass come up on the earth, and plants producing seed, and fruit-trees giving fruit, in which is their seed, after their sort: and it was so.
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 534 • Replies: 7
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Ragman
 
  2  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 06:57 am
@oristarA,
Of course you know the bible is an infallible record, don't you?

However, if you are asking the question for the sake of proper grammar, in and of itself, you are correct - the phrase should be 'its kind'.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:00 am
You're tilting at windmills if you think you get to correct the bible. The King James version of the bible was completed in 1611. The Bible in Basic English was completed in 1949 (for the Old Testament). The difference in the usages reflects the more than 300 years which separate the translations. In the early 17th century, assigning the masculine as the gender of anything otherwise unspecified was a reasonable convention.
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Setanta
 
  0  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:01 am
@Ragman,
A naïve response . . .
Ragman
 
  2  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:09 am
@Setanta,
I've no idea what you are talking about. What is naive? My comment about infallibility? It was tongue-in-cheek. Rolling Eyes
gungasnake
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:15 am
@oristarA,
Apparently you only need to go back 300 - 400 years to see gender or at least traces of gender in English. Other European languages still have it.
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oristarA
 
  2  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:23 am
Very Happy Very Happy Very Happy

What I've seen is Chinese-English version.

Thank you anyways.

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Setanta
 
  0  
Reply Tue 7 Dec, 2010 07:39 am
@Ragman,
Saying that the one is correct and that the other is not was naïve.
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