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Why subjective theories are not science.

 
 
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 04:08 pm
Does all science need to be based on empirical data, and what empirical data is sufficient to be called science. When does something leave the objective realm and enter into the subjective. How can subjective experience be tested?
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 4,667 • Replies: 37
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jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 08:07 pm
@Brandi phil,
How can a theory exist without somebody to entertain the idea? You can have all the 'empirical data' you want, but without an hypothesis that connects all the dots, you haven't got much. And where does 'the hypothesis' exist, eh? You won't find that wandering around on the plains or lighting up your bubble chamber. Think about that.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 08:31 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;171513 wrote:
How can a theory exist without somebody to entertain the idea? You can have all the 'empirical data' you want, but without an hypothesis that connects all the dots, you haven't got much. And where does 'the hypothesis' exist, eh? You won't find that wandering around on the plains or lighting up your bubble chamber. Think about that.


But where do hypotheses exist? And if they exist somewhere, what difference does it make where they exist? In other words, what is your point?
0 Replies
 
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 08:40 pm
@Brandi phil,
The question was: When does something leave the objective realm and enter the subjective? And one answer is: when we hypothesise about it.

Science may well be founded on empirical data, but the data must often be interpreted subjectively for an hypothesis to be formed. 'Scientific progress' is often not a very scientific matter - it involves dreams, hunches, intuitions, arguments, and many other aspects of subjective experience. Which is precisely the point.
Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 08:51 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171404 wrote:
Does all science need to be based on empirical data, and what empirical data is sufficient to be called science. When does something leave the objective realm and enter into the subjective. How can subjective experience be tested?


Excellent question. I suggest this obvious but overlooked fact. We simply must use our sense organs to test any hypothesis, and the experience of sensation is private/subjective. Sensation is one kind of private experience. There are others. Here's Wittgenstein:

Quote:

6.362 What can be described can happen too: and what the law of
causality is meant to exclude cannot even be described.


6.363 The procedure of induction consists in accepting as true the
simplest law that can be reconciled with our experiences.


6.3631 This procedure, however, has no logical justification but only a
psychological one. It is clear that there are no grounds for believing
that the simplest eventuality will in fact be realized.


6.36311 It is an hypothesis that the sun will rise tomorrow: and this
means that we do not know whether it will rise.


6.37 There is no compulsion making one thing happen because another has
happened. The only necessity that exists is logical necessity.


6.371 The whole modern conception of the world is founded on the
illusion that the so-called laws of nature are the explanations of
natural phenomena.


6.372 Thus people today stop at the laws of nature, treating them as
something inviolable, just as God and Fate were treated in past ages.
And in fact both are right and both wrong: though the view of the
ancients is clearer in so far as they have a clear and acknowledged
terminus, while the modern system tries to make it look as if everything
were explained.


That's Witt. Make of it what you will.:flowers:
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:00 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;171543 wrote:
The question was: When does something leave the objective realm and enter the subjective? And one answer is: when we hypothesise about it.

Science may well be founded on empirical data, but the data must often be interpreted subjectively for an hypothesis to be formed. 'Scientific progress' is often not a very scientific matter - it involves dreams, hunches, intuitions, arguments, and many other aspects of subjective experience. Which is precisely the point.


Why do you think that hypotheses are subjective, and in what sense? Specifically, what do you mean by saying that data are "interpreted subjectively"? That the interpretation is personal and individual, and is not something which can be critically thought about? Could I not, for instance, not only disagree with your interpretation of empirical date, but show that your interpretation was wrong? Suppose you had a set of data that you thought showed that some person disliked you. Are you saying that I could not get you to change your mind by pointing out aspects of the data that you had missed. Surely you don't believe that you might not have misunderstood or missed something in your data so that your interpretation of it was mistaken. You are not saying that interpretations are infallible, are you? If not, then what are you saying when you say that interpretations (hypotheses) are subjective?
0 Replies
 
Brandi phil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:09 pm
@Reconstructo,
Reconstructo;171554 wrote:
Excellent question. I suggest this obvious but overlooked fact. We simply must use our sense organs to test any hypothesis, and the experience of sensation is private/subjective. Sensation is one kind of private experience. There are others. Here's Wittgenstein:



That's Witt. Make of it what you will.:flowers:


Can subjective experience itself be tested scientifically. For example, consciousness, etc.
Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:12 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171568 wrote:
Can subjective experience itself be tested scientifically. For example, consciousness, etc.


I don't think it can. I suggest that quantity itself is a subject experience. But this experience is so common and fundamental that don't notice that numerals are not numbers.

Sensation is not reducible to concept. It just is. The prestige of natural science is based largely on the technology that just works for us. And I for one am grateful, especially for air conditioning.

Physical "laws" are just descriptions in conceptual/mathematical terms of generalizations abstracted from particulars. These particulars just are. Descriptions are not explanations. Or we can say that scientific explanation is an integration of new descriptions within our accumulated system of less new descriptions. What experience is, it just is.

Philosophy is logically prior to science. But science works. The danger consists in mistaking pragmatic descriptions and the application of such for conceptual coherence and logical rigor. :detective:

---------- Post added 05-31-2010 at 10:17 PM ----------

jeeprs;171513 wrote:
How can a theory exist without somebody to entertain the idea? You can have all the 'empirical data' you want, but without an hypothesis that connects all the dots, you haven't got much. And where does 'the hypothesis' exist, eh? You won't find that wandering around on the plains or lighting up your bubble chamber. Think about that.


Right, and in what way does concept exist in the first place? Does it live in "logical space"? Where's that? Concept is an irreducible aspect of the human experience which cannot be located in the "objective" world. Or can it? I don't see how. Unless one claims that letters and sounds are all that thought is made of.
0 Replies
 
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:23 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171568 wrote:
Can subjective experience itself be tested scientifically. For example, consciousness, etc.


Isn't that what psychology is supposed to be about? And cognitive science?
Brandi phil
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:35 pm
@jeeprs,
jeeprs;171575 wrote:
Isn't that what psychology is supposed to be about? And cognitive science?

Precisely. But when does that leave the scientific and become non-scientific.
Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:38 pm
@Brandi phil,
B.F. Skinner wanted to make psychology more scientific in the sense of quantified and objective. But this means a denial of consciousness, really, whatever this consciousness is.

I propose that any psychology that generalized according the data of consciousness, as expressed by means of language, is really not much more scientific than the old myths. The old myths already were psychology.
0 Replies
 
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 May, 2010 09:54 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171581 wrote:
Precisely. But when does that leave the scientific and become non-scientific.


It is a big question. Early in the 20th Century, in the attempt to make psychology scientific, behaviourists tried to completely abolish any reference to mind or subject and rename the whole discipline 'behavioural science'. They claimed that only behavours were empirically observable. (Behaviourist after making love: 'That was great for you, dear. How was it for me?')

Behaviourism really went out of fashion by the sixties, though.


Another approach is phenomenology.
Quote:
n psychology, phenomenology is used to refer to subjective experiences or their study. The experiencing subject can be considered to be the person or self, for purposes of convenience. In phenomenological philosophy (and particularly in the work of Husserl, Heidegger and Merleau-Ponty) "experience" is a considerably more complex concept than it is usually taken to be in everyday use. Instead, experience (or being, or existence itself) is an "in-relation-to" phenomenon, and it is defined by qualities of directedness, embodiment and worldliness which are evoked by the term "Being-in-the-World".[1]

Nevertheless, one abiding feature of "experiences" is that, in principle, they are not directly observable by any external observer. The quality or nature of a given experience is often referred to by the term qualia, whose archetypical exemplar is "redness". For example, we might ask, "Is my experience of redness the same as yours?" While it is difficult to answer such a question in any concrete way, the concept of intersubjectivity is often used as a mechanism for understanding how it is that humans are able to empathise with one another's experiences, and indeed to engage in meaningful communication about them. The phenomenological formulation of Being-in-the-World, where person and world are mutually constitutive, is central here.
(from Wikipedia)
0 Replies
 
GoshisDead
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 10:43 am
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171581 wrote:
Precisely. But when does that leave the scientific and become non-scientific.


It leaves at the point you no longer consider it scientific. Chemists do not consider sociology scientific, however a great many sociologists do. Given a heterogenous population of 'scientists' one finds a very large scope of the what is operationally science. Also given this set of forum dwellers one will find the same. One can use the scientific method in psychology, lingusitics, sociology, even English Lit.

There is a very specified psycho-social disconnect between the term science and the process of science. One is most often built on a fairly arbitrary stereotype. Practiced in X place by Y people wearing Z type clothing using B type instruments. Where in fact the scientific method or process is used in Philosophy which is quite universally not thought of as a science. The real difference between the two is quite subjective and largely based on social categorization which in itself is very unscientific.
0 Replies
 
Huxley
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 05:08 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171581 wrote:
Precisely. But when does that leave the scientific and become non-scientific.


That's actually one of the major problems in the philosophy of science, according to Popper. link

"What is accepted by the scientific community as scientific" isn't a bad operational definition, but it doesn't help in answering the spirit of the question, I don't think.

I don't think any of the usual answers always apply, but think that they often apply and give a decent understanding of what to accept as scientific and what to reject -- falsifiability, reproducible experiments by you, by others in your lab, and by other labs working in the same field, novel predictions, precise quantification... these aren't exhaustive, but I think give a decent idea of what makes scientific knowledge differ from the non-scientific. (And note: Just because something is not scientific, doesn't mean it has no value as knowledge)


Quote:
Chemists do not consider sociology scientific


Hey! That's not true of all of us. Very Happy
0 Replies
 
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 07:12 pm
@Brandi phil,
As Marx pointed out, different classes have different (social/moral) sciences that reflect their class consciousness. Which is the right one? What is excluded as irrelevant by one class may be important to another. What is included by one class may be superfluous to the other. Is it possible to have, for example, a comprehensive and open science of economics without making some relatively subjective assumptions based on ones class? No, because the driving force behind economics and the social sciences is about whether the system should change or not and if it should change how it should change. These value judgments cannot completely objective as they are necessarily informed and influenced by ones class consciousness or, in the case of those who have no consciousness of their class, by the class consciousness of others.
0 Replies
 
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 07:21 pm
@Brandi phil,
Cartesian anxiety ontological certainty, or feeling that scientific methods, and especially the study of the world as a thing separate from ourselves, should be able to lead us to a firm and unchanging knowledge of ourselves and the world around us. The term is named after Descartes because of his well-known emphasis on "mind" as different from "body", "self" as different from "other".

Richard J. Bernstein is recognized as having coined the term in his 1983 book Beyond Objectivism and Relativism: Science, Hermeneutics, and Praxis.
0 Replies
 
HexHammer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 07:33 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171404 wrote:
Does all science need to be based on empirical data, and what empirical data is sufficient to be called science. When does something leave the objective realm and enter into the subjective. How can subjective experience be tested?
Please provide some concrete examples, else we poke around in blindness, or have to make assumptions based on shaking the x-maz gifts Very Happy
Brandi phil
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 07:37 pm
@HexHammer,
HexHammer;171872 wrote:
Please provide some concrete examples, else we poke around in blindness, or have to make assumptions based on shaking the x-maz gifts Very Happy

I have been researching whether Chomsky's universal grammar is scientific inquiry according to Popper's philosophy of science. I am trying to gain some insight.
jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 08:01 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171874 wrote:
I have been researching whether Chomsky's universal grammar is scientific inquiry according to Popper's philosophy of science.


My guess is that generally speaking, most of those in the Arts faculty would say Yes, and most of those in the Science faculty would say No. But I could be wrong.
0 Replies
 
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Tue 1 Jun, 2010 08:03 pm
@Brandi phil,
Brandi;171874 wrote:
I have been researching whether Chomsky's universal grammar is scientific inquiry according to Popper's philosophy of science. I am trying to gain some insight.

I think so. What's the sticking point? Falsifiability? I think Chomsky did work with empirical evidence of existing languages.
 

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