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philosophy of probability

 
 
VideCorSpoon
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Mar, 2010 10:30 pm
@north,
north;138839 wrote:
the problem with probability is that it is by its very Nature inaccurate

the problem with exact calculations is that it is extremely complex , and therefore closer to the truth of the way things are ,( beyond us really at this point )

hence a connundrum

probability or exact calculations ?

I could buy into the fact that probability is inherently inaccurate. What could be said about probability in particular is that it is a whole amalgamation of generalizations about probable relationships. By no means accurate, but inherently imprecise (due to the fact that it is above all inductive).

As far as exact calculations, their complexity, and therefore being closer to the truth, I would like to say the opposite would be more favorable, that the simpler something is, then the closer it is to the truth because it dispenses with the multitude of variables which attempt to cloud the truth.
0 Replies
 
north
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Mar, 2010 10:37 pm
@ughaibu,
Quote:
Originally Posted by north http://www.philosophyforum.com/images/PHBlue/buttons/viewpost.gif
the problem with exact calculations is that it is extremely complex , and therefore closer to the truth of the way things are ,( beyond us really at this point )




ughaibu;138843 wrote:
If you mean exact calculations of outcomes, ie predictions, Solomonoff has proved that they're impossible, regardless of whether the model is deterministic or probabilistic. What does that imply about "the truth of the way things are"?


that they are not impossible just extremely complex
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Mar, 2010 10:46 pm
@north,
north;138847 wrote:
that they are not impossible just extremely complex
Okay, where did Solomonoff go wrong?
Publications of Ray Solomonoff
north
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Mar, 2010 10:50 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;138853 wrote:
Okay, where did Solomonoff go wrong?
Publications of Ray Solomonoff


couldn't tell you
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 09:01 am
@north,
But thermodynamics is not necessarily QM theory. Therefore thermodynamics is conceivably true even in a deterministic universe. Probability theory then becomes a matter of distribution and approximation..... rather than measurement itself.

Of course thermodynamics may be a part of QM theory and is thought to be by todays science. But it did exist before QM.

Surely there is a difference? Probability is saying potentially two different things about measurement IF QM indeterminism is true. The philosophical question is "is it possible to be able to tell the difference?".

At first sight it can , on the basis that QM predicts entangled states. BUT something looking very much like entangled states (and classically isnt), with the same probabilities can be constructed. Thus the probabilities themselves cannot tell us whether they are intrinsic to that which is being measured ........ or approximations coming from incomplete measurement of something that is actually determinate.

The context of the unknowable is intrinsic to the thing in itself in QM

The context of the unknowable is extrinsic to the thing in itself for determinism.

Which can we tell from the thing in itself and its associative probability? ie how can science conceivably perform an experiment upon nature that settles the issue one way or the other?
VideCorSpoon
 
  1  
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 11:09 am
@pagan,
pagan;139311 wrote:
But thermodynamics is not necessarily QM theory. Therefore thermodynamics is conceivably true even in a deterministic universe. Probability theory then becomes a matter of distribution and approximation..... rather than measurement itself.
pagan;139311 wrote:
Of course thermodynamics may be a part of QM theory and is thought to be by todays science. But it did exist before QM.

Today's science (which I am assuming is physical science) makes an exception for quantum mechanics because under the terms of classical physics, the election(s) must
pagan;139311 wrote:
Surely there is a difference? Probability is saying potentially two different things about measurement IF QM indeterminism is true. The philosophical question is "is it possible to be able to tell the difference?".
pagan;139311 wrote:
At first sight it can , on the basis that QM predicts entangled states.

Does quantum mechanics predict entangled states? I had been taught as far as organic chemistry via wave functions (orbitals), quantum mechanics primarily determines the energy of an electron and the volume of space around the nucleus where the electron is most likely to be found (thus the probability component). What's being entangled?
pagan;139311 wrote:
BUT something looking very much like entangled states (and classically isnt), with the same probabilities can be constructed. Thus the probabilities themselves cannot tell us whether they are intrinsic to that which is being measured ........ or approximations coming from incomplete measurement of something that is actually determinate.

We must be thinking of different quantum mechanic and probability theories.

pagan;139311 wrote:
The context of the unknowable is intrinsic to the thing in itself in QM

Oddly enough, isn't this contradictory? If quantum mechanics (at least the quantum mechanics I know) is comprised of the elements I have previously discussed, then the inherent (or the more interestingly phrases "intrinsic") qualities put quantum mechanics in context.

pagan;139311 wrote:
The context of the unknowable is extrinsic to the thing in itself for determinism.
This seems redundant. If determinism is the amalgamation of cause and effect, that all events are without exception effects, then "the thing in itself" (which interestingly sound like you are trying to apply an Aristotelian "being qua being" to the argument now) had a known cause. But the redundancy comes in when a removed outlier is placed in a deterministic framework.

pagan;139311 wrote:
Which can we tell from the thing in itself and its associative probability? ie how can science conceivably perform an experiment upon nature that settles the issue one way or the other?

Does the thing in itself necessarily entail its own probability? Were we not just talking about determinism in the last paragraph?

As to how science can conceivably perform an experiment upon nature that settles the issue one way or the other, isn't this the reason why truth-functional frameworks were brought up numerous times in previous posts?
0 Replies
 
Doubt doubt
 
  1  
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 12:12 pm
@pagan,
So i drop a die into a hole in a box so i cant see how it lands. It seams to me that there is a zero percent chance it is anything but what it is and a hundred percent chance it is what it is. how is a dynamic equation any better than a guess at predicting the static result? Whats the probability of the probability being right? It seams to me that this time would be better spent practicing throwing dice in a way that is consistent so you could predict the outcome 100% of the time.
VideCorSpoon
 
  1  
Reply Sat 13 Mar, 2010 12:46 pm
@Doubt doubt,
Doubt doubt;139359 wrote:
So i drop a die into a hole in a box so i cant see how it lands. It seams to me that there is a zero percent chance it is anything but what it is and a hundred percent chance it is what it is.
relative truth-functional framework dependent on axiomatic conditions we choose to predicate upon it (in terms of what we seek in its landing, etc.).
Doubt doubt;139359 wrote:
how is a dynamic equation any better than a guess at predicting the static result?
The "dynamic equation" is essentially narrowing possibilities based on taken factors. So in the case of a die, if we wonder what will happen for it to roll even, we could calculate the probability, as well as many other truth functional possibilities dependant on what we want to narrow our probability on. It's still a guess, only a well educated guess.
Doubt doubt;139359 wrote:
Whats the probability of the probability being right?

That would have its own probability.
Doubt doubt;139359 wrote:
It seams to me that this time would be better spent practicing throwing dice in a way that is consistent so you could predict the outcome 100% of the time.

Wouldn't that entail that you are increasing the probability by whatever method you are practicing to increase the odds of it landing on a number you want? So you are using probability in any case.
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 01:19 pm
@VideCorSpoon,
thermodynamics still makes sense in a deterministic universe. But whatever...

In a deterministic universe where all forms are well defined, it still makes sense to do probability theory on the basis of the difficulty of obtaining a perfect measurement of an unambiguous form. The instruments of measurement do not have to be perfect in order to be useful, and probability theory in this context enables imperfect measurement to be useful.

On the other hand, in QM the form to be measured is intrinsically ambiguous. Thus probabilty theory is useful in the different context of the intrinsic indeterminism of the form.

knowability in a deterministic universe is exluded to some extent by the context of the limitations of a measuring instrument. Theoretically, all is knowable, but in practice it isn't. In a QM universe, knowability is to some extent excluded by the context of reality itself.

The question philosophically is, can we ever tell which is the case?
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 01:24 pm
@pagan,
pagan;139646 wrote:
In a deterministic universe where all forms are well defined. . . .
You two have been exchanging long posts, so, just to recap (meaning that I haven't been paying strict attention) when talking about a "deterministic universe" do you mean that the claim that the world is determined is true or is your claim about some degree of predictability, or something else?
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 01:31 pm
@ughaibu,
ughaibu

yes fair point because determinism is ambiguous Smile

i mean in the sense of say the billiard ball model of the universe as compared to 'the probability wave potentially collapsing to what looks like a billiard ball with fuzzy edges' universe. The idea of well defined physical forms upon which measurement attempts to describe. As compared to a theory of matter such that physical forms arise from fluctuating fields, and from a distance look well defined.

Both of course can retain cause and effect.
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 01:41 pm
@pagan,
pagan;139649 wrote:
i mean in the sense of say the billiard ball model of the universe as compared to 'the probability wave potentially collapsing to what looks like a billiard ball with fuzzy edges' universe. The idea of well defined physical forms upon which measurement attempts to describe. As compared to a theory of matter such that physical forms arise from fluctuating fields, and from a distance look well defined.

Both of course can retain cause and effect.
Okay, I guess you're talking about a species of epistemic determinism. I'm a bit drunk at the moment, can you give me a two or three sentence update on what the contentious points about a probabilistic approach in an only epistemicaly deterministic world are, please.
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 02:18 pm
@ughaibu,
lol ughaibu well i am suffering from a hangover Smile

uh ...... uh

well i don't assume QM to be fundamentally correct. It may be found inadequate and superceded. Thermodynamics as far as i am concerned was around before QM and usefully so. However, thermodynamics in the QM context is different to thermodynamics without it. In the latter i maintain that probability theory remains as a means of measuring distribution and approximation.

Quote:
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 02:43 pm
@pagan,
pagan;139667 wrote:
thermodynamics in the QM context is different to thermodynamics without it
I dare say. Plus 5.
VideCorSpoon
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Mar, 2010 05:36 pm
@ughaibu,
pagan;139646 wrote:
thermodynamics still makes sense in a deterministic universe. But whatever...
Well first off don't my word for it. The more interesting thing that at least I would want to read are the specific reasons why you state that thermodynamics makes sense in a deterministic framework and then consider your developed reasoning. I was hoping for some more developed responses.
pagan;139646 wrote:
In a deterministic universe where all forms are well defined, it still makes sense to do probability theory on the basis of the difficulty of obtaining a perfect measurement of an unambiguous form. The instruments of measurement do not have to be perfect in order to be useful, and probability theory in this context enables imperfect measurement to be useful.

According to whom is it such that in a deterministic universe where all forms are well defined? Besides the whole causality/effect issue, as far a scientific determinisms go, we consider theories of such people as Newton and Einstein, but even they admit to other ways or at least other possibilities different from their own designs. But as far as this new argument you just provided goes, I think there may be something to it generally speaking. And I can also agree as to the instrumentation of measurement, usefulness, etc. statement as well. I wish there were more elaboration though.

pagan;139646 wrote:
On the other hand, in QM the form to be measured is intrinsically ambiguous. Thus probabilty theory is useful in the different context of the intrinsic indeterminism of the form.
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Mar, 2010 09:50 am
@VideCorSpoon,
ok ..... on with the pseudo science lol

The difference between the world being inherently fuzzy and on the other hand appearing fuzzy, is of course just a tad fundamental in its consideration. Probability theory is used to refine the picture under both circumstances, but can it decide which philosophical scheme is more accurate?

The 'return to determinism' contenders are most notably called the hidden variable theories. Theories that claim that QM 'may appear' to be inherently indeterministic, but this is only an approximation of an underlying classicalism (determinism).
Probability theory is always seen in these terms, as what is required to manage the incomplete acquisition of information, that is nevertheless always there to be had.

One sense in which QM can be described as indeterminate is that according to QM, exactly the same experiment repeated would yield only a probability that we would get exactly the same result, even if it were possible to set it up exactly again and again. ie there are no hidden structures that can be set up such that an experiment will repeatedly yield the same result, as compared to the previously predicted probability distribution of QM of the same experiment.
Probability theory is always seen in these terms as what is required to understand the fundamental nature of reality ..... and not just the management of missed or generalised information.

There doesn't appear to be a way of telling which is true by probability theory itself. It works just as well and as strangely in either circumstance. But having said that, QM is weird! It describes entangled states between particles such that they are concieved as instantaneously connected while also being in an indeterminate state prior to the collapse of that state. Thats something classicalism would never come up with. Its a possibility.

Generally speaking as people we have the common sense view that something exists clearly. Yet when we use probability theory on such cases as the two child problem above, we get confused. There is nothing QM going on here. Why does this happen? I wonder if the reason is because we have as people a completely contrary view to existence as we do to the future. ie common sense tells us that the future is not determined, and any of six numbers can occur on the face of the next dice. In other words the future doesn't exist clearly. With regard to the past on the other hand we tend to have a more ambiguous attitude. It clearly happened, but doesn't exist!

What probability theory in the classical sense does, is on occasions mix our common sense of clear existence in the present, with our common sense of the future does not exist and our ambiguous relationship to the past. I think the two child problem and the two envelope problem can be seen in these terms such that we can get a clue as to why we become confused.

Determinism makes the present all nice and clear. It is attractive for that reason. Indeterminism makes the future unclear, and is attractive for that reason. Classicalism makes the past and future as clear as the present, and that can feel uncomfortable. QM makes the future and the present unclear......... and that feels weird Smile

But what about the past? We use probability theory in the classical sense to manage incomplete acquisition of information. That feels ok because our relationship to the past is ambiguous anyway. But could we apply indeterminism to the past and feel ok too?
VideCorSpoon
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Mar, 2010 02:52 pm
@pagan,
pagan;139941 wrote:
ok ..... on with the pseudo science lol

The difference between the world being inherently fuzzy and on the other hand appearing fuzzy, is of course just a tad fundamental in its consideration. Probability theory is used to refine the picture under both circumstances, but can it decide which philosophical scheme is more accurate?

The 'return to determinism' contenders are most notably called the hidden variable theories. Theories that claim that QM 'may appear' to be inherently indeterministic, but this is only an approximation of an underlying classicalism (determinism).
Probability theory is always seen in these terms, as what is required to manage the incomplete acquisition of information, that is nevertheless always there to be had.

One sense in which QM can be described as indeterminate is that according to QM, exactly the same experiment repeated would yield only a probability that we would get exactly the same result, even if it were possible to set it up exactly again and again. ie there are no hidden structures that can be set up such that an experiment will repeatedly yield the same result, as compared to the previously predicted probability distribution of QM of the same experiment.
Probability theory is always seen in these terms as what is required to understand the fundamental nature of reality ..... and not just the management of missed or generalised information.

There doesn't appear to be a way of telling which is true by probability theory itself. It works just as well and as strangely in either circumstance. But having said that, QM is weird! It describes entangled states between particles such that they are concieved as instantaneously connected while also being in an indeterminate state prior to the collapse of that state. Thats something classicalism would never come up with. Its a possibility.

Generally speaking as people we have the common sense view that something exists clearly. Yet when we use probability theory on such cases as the two child problem above, we get confused. There is nothing QM going on here. Why does this happen? I wonder if the reason is because we have as people a completely contrary view to existence as we do to the future. ie common sense tells us that the future is not determined, and any of six numbers can occur on the face of the next dice. In other words the future doesn't exist clearly. With regard to the past on the other hand we tend to have a more ambiguous attitude. It clearly happened, but doesn't exist!

What probability theory in the classical sense does, is on occasions mix our common sense of clear existence in the present, with our common sense of the future does not exist and our ambiguous relationship to the past. I think the two child problem and the two envelope problem can be seen in these terms such that we can get a clue as to why we become confused.

Determinism makes the present all nice and clear. It is attractive for that reason. Indeterminism makes the future unclear, and is attractive for that reason. Classicalism makes the past and future as clear as the present, and that can feel uncomfortable. QM makes the future and the present unclear......... and that feels weird Smile

But what about the past? We use probability theory in the classical sense to manage incomplete acquisition of information. That feels ok because our relationship to the past is ambiguous anyway. But could we apply indeterminism to the past and feel ok too?


Ok... on the response.
pagan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 15 Mar, 2010 06:25 pm
@VideCorSpoon,
well it seems to a me bit odd intellectually that QM doesn't propose the loss if information from the past since from any point in the past to now involves an astronomical number of indeterminate events. QM states that for the present any repetition of a quantum event exactly would only give a probability of the same result occuring. Thus it is an astronomical certainty that a replay of time universally would not preserve the past for each now. In that context of unknowability, is it therefore not a natural supposition that information of the past is not conserved? moreover that information from the past, decays with time.

Is this not what we experience with common sense? ie that with time it becomes increasingly difficult to read the past? eg archaeology.

Why then consider the conservation of the past? Is it not that psychologically if we consider the decay of the past, (the universes memory of its own history) then it is a kind of extra death? Even for the atheist, at least they can believe that they remain part of the memory of history. ie "I did happen!" ........ a denial of death.

But a form of QM such that the past decays, and is not conserved (preserved) in the information of any present, would eventually say that any one event has a probability of zero of surviving in time. Decay of information is commonly used in telecommunications theory. The copy of the copy eventually disintegrates,

And for me information becomes knowledge in certain contexts. Knowledge of information is itself a piece of information. It follows that it (the information of that knowledge) can only exist in that context. Thus in order to conserve information the context itself must be conserved. But since an individual life is a context for that information, and individual lives are not conserved (ever), then the universe must be losing information with time. Each death of a life form is a loss of information, through the loss of the unique context of information.

We live in an age where we are obsessed with recording our lives. Preserving our pasts. We fear and sense the loss. Its a kind of death. And the more we record of our lives, the more we will be unimpressed with the immortality offered. Unimpressed by its context of preservation, unimpressed by its completeness and unimpressed with its meaningful survival in time.
0 Replies
 
 

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