@pagan,
pagan;139311 wrote:But thermodynamics is not necessarily QM theory. Therefore thermodynamics is conceivably true even in a deterministic universe. Probability theory then becomes a matter of distribution and approximation..... rather than measurement itself.
A proton isn't necessarily a neutron (nor an electron), yet the amalgamation is considered an atom. This is the key to the distinction, which is that there are fundamental articles in Quantum mechanics? namely the principles of thermodynamics. Can't have one without the other (well, you could in base theory have thermodynamics as an independent set (theoretically)... hence the whole truth-functional framework things mentioned a few times).
However, as far as saying that if thermodynamics is not necessarily "QM" theory (which I would caution using this abbreviation because there are other scientific theories with "QM" in them, like "quantitative measurement,") then thermodynamics is conceivably true even in a deterministic universe? I disagree with this statement fundamentally. Propositionally (logic wise), simply saying if X is not Y, then Z, that is a fallacious argument wrought with induction. It would be like me saying "an orange is not an apple, therefore I have a pear." And this has little connection to "probability theory becoming a matter of distribution and approximation etc." I'm sure you have a very good argument for these separate points, but I tend to think that they are not viable as a compound conditional statement without proper support.
pagan;139311 wrote:Of course thermodynamics may be a part of QM theory and is thought to be by todays science. But it did exist before QM.
Today's science (which I am assuming is physical science) makes an exception for quantum mechanics because under the terms of classical physics, the election(s)
must come crashing down into the nucleus? which it does not. Simply put, classical physics cannot resolve the collapsing atom paradox, nor issues like correctly predicting the heat capacity of cold solids or even the periodicity of the elements. As to saying thermodynamics existed before quantum mechanics, that is conjectural. That is a "what came first, the chicken or the egg" argument, and it would be negligent to suppose the chicken came first.
pagan;139311 wrote:Surely there is a difference? Probability is saying potentially two different things about measurement IF QM indeterminism is true. The philosophical question is "is it possible to be able to tell the difference?".
A difference between what? thermodynamics and Quantum mechanics or the next point about probability? What are the two different things probability is saying about measurement? How does "quantum mechanic indeterminism" and its truth functionality become a consequent of probability saying "two things" about measurement? What is quantum mechanic indeterminism? Does this mean to imply that quantum mechanics is indeterminate? What about Planck's constant or the frequency conversion formula on which quantum theory unites? or even the Schr?dinger equation?
pagan;139311 wrote:At first sight it can , on the basis that QM predicts entangled states.
Does quantum mechanics predict entangled states? I had been taught as far as organic chemistry via wave functions (orbitals), quantum mechanics primarily determines the energy of an electron and the volume of space around the nucleus where the electron is most likely to be found (thus the probability component). What's being entangled?
pagan;139311 wrote:BUT something looking very much like entangled states (and classically isnt), with the same probabilities can be constructed. Thus the probabilities themselves cannot tell us whether they are intrinsic to that which is being measured ........ or approximations coming from incomplete measurement of something that is actually determinate.
We must be thinking of different quantum mechanic and probability theories.
pagan;139311 wrote:The context of the unknowable is intrinsic to the thing in itself in QM
Oddly enough, isn't this contradictory? If quantum mechanics (at least the quantum mechanics I know) is comprised of the elements I have previously discussed, then the inherent (or the more interestingly phrases "intrinsic") qualities put quantum mechanics in context.
pagan;139311 wrote:The context of the unknowable is extrinsic to the thing in itself for determinism.
This seems redundant. If determinism is the amalgamation of cause and effect, that all events are without exception effects, then "the thing in itself" (which interestingly sound like you are trying to apply an Aristotelian "being qua being" to the argument now) had a known cause. But the redundancy comes in when a removed outlier is placed in a deterministic framework.
pagan;139311 wrote:Which can we tell from the thing in itself and its associative probability? ie how can science conceivably perform an experiment upon nature that settles the issue one way or the other?
Does the thing in itself necessarily entail its own probability? Were we not just talking about determinism in the last paragraph?
As to how science can conceivably perform an experiment upon nature that settles the issue one way or the other, isn't this the reason why truth-functional frameworks were brought up numerous times in previous posts?