0
   

Why is there Something and not nothing?

 
 
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Tue 9 Mar, 2010 05:29 am
@Raine,
Raine;131431 wrote:
Or maybe matter/energy? If the Principle of Conservation of Energy is to be believed, and energy cannot be made or destroyed but merely transfered, does that make it necessary?



It is not clear to me that energy is a candidate of being "necessary". What sense could this "necessity" be? Obviously, this cannot be logical, because
to say P is necessary is to say -P is logical impossible, or that P is true at all possible worlds. It is commonly that case that for p to be necessary, then either
1. p is a posteriori necessary, and
2. p is analytic.

For p to be true for 1 is for p to be some sort of identity. Energy does not seem to be it. Energy is a concept that is posited by physics to explain. It itself is not a subject. For example, it is show that if the laws of nature are time-symmetric in a physical system, then energy is conserved. As you can see, energy is a derived property of a system, and not a thing in itself. So, one maybe able to identify possible kinds of systems with the property of energy regulating it in all possible worlds, but it is not necessary for it seems just as likely to imagine other possible worlds with different systems given by say something close to the notion of energy in that world, but not exactly the same.

For p to be true from 2 is for p to be true in "virtue of meaning". It is hard to see how the concept of energy must be true just by understanding the meaning. It seems we need to do experiements to figure out the meaning, but that would make it number 1. If meaning of energy is extension, then it would only be true to all worlds in which the physics are some what similar to our own which uses the notion of "energy", but one could easily imagine a possible world of a different kind. So, i conclude it cannot be 2 .

---------- Post added 03-09-2010 at 06:43 AM ----------

Alan McDougall;119824 wrote:
Something instead of nothing?

Why is there something instead of nothing? The interesting conclusion of this ultimate puzzle is that, we can be sure of, it that at least something exists. There is a Universe, we see people, and things, and light, and while we may debate what it means, how it came into being, and how it works, we can be sure that there is at least `something'.

Many physists search for the most elementary laws of physics, and believe that a law is more likely to be true, when it is simpler, more elementary. Some think that at some moment, humans will understand how the Universe and everything works, and, even more, that we find out why the Universe is necessarily as it is. (Ridiculous nonsense). I cannot believe that, indeed, I believe humans cannot ever give a satisfactory or final answer to this ultimate of all questions. Why is there something instead of nothing?

With nothing, I mean the un-existence of everything. No people, no earth, no milky way, no universe, no laws of nature, no space, no time a total non-existence of everything. A mind-boggling, brain-, brain-numbing and brain- twisting overwhelming concept, terrifying, frightening, too awful to contemplate and impossible think about, without going insane and totally beyond understanding of any human genius.

Making a mathematical model of nothing is actually easy. (Take an empty set, with no operations on it, and nothing else.) Nevertheless, one thing we can be sure of: this nothing is not correct: we do not have "nothing", but definite and absolutely do indeed have 'something'. This shows that the simplest model is not always the correct one. The universe is almost infinitely complex and to me this points to the simple logic that it is the creation by an infinite, intelligent power. Nothing is the very most basic of all concepts and if there were nothing, there would be no creator, of course.

Some people may argue that the universe was created in the Big Bang ( but whom and what pressed the button of the big bang in the first place, so to speak?) , and that positive matter and positive energy are actually negated by the simultaneous creation of negative matter and negative energy. However, this doesn't answer the other question, where do matter, energy and laws of physics then come from in the first place?

Does this question have an answer? If something exists because it either was a modification of something or else, Something or Somebody else created it, then what caused that to exist? It seems that our logic is unable to deal with the question; indeed, I think the question shows there is a limit to our understanding of things by the very best minds of the human race.

There are simply mysteries out there that will never ever be solved by mere mortal man. You see the universe has a strange Goldie locks condition about it, i.e., it cannot be too hot or too cold etc, etc, erc, but it has to be just absolutely correct, precise and right or life would not have come into existence and we would not be around to contemplate, debate or dialogue on this ultimate enigma. We would not exist. Life hangs on and depends on this knife- edge of harmonies conditions that have to be sustained over countless billions of years, for us to have come into existence and continue to exist.

Makes one think, does it not?
why do we have a universe? my answer is that god created the universe. however, then, one can ask, who/what created god?

I believe god was not created and this 'fact' is beyond our understanding and must be accepted on faith. god is far and beyond our understanding, everlasting, without beginning or end, eternal and ever -existing, but was (and is, and will be) always existed. he/she is indeed the very author of all existence. indeed.

God is so mighty, omni-all that he/she exists, forever, far above our reasoning and above the ultimate reaches of our logic. something we and all the vain puffed up scientist, philosophers, etc, will just have to accept in time, we will, at the end of the day have to, relent and acknowledge that somewhere out there is a awesome, colossal, mighty, great infinite intelligence that in comparison that we are as a microbe is to a human or perhaps horrors even much further remote, from the omni-all power we call god. it will indeed be a most humbling experience for us to finally realize and acknowledge, that there are things and mysteries that will; remain forever, absolutely, totally beyond human comprehension understand and reside eternally in the mind of our creator god.

It is a fact the finite will simply never ever comprehend the mind of the infinite


It is a mistake to say the universe come from nothing. The nothing of the physicisits are not nothing. You can probable figure this out by some research.

It is true that the reason for why the big bang happen is mysterious, but it is no less mysterious by positing a god to explain the universe. The moral is this: explanation will always come to be end. It depends on preference of where you want to end it.
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 12:57 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;137823 wrote:
It is not clear to me that energy is a candidate of being "necessary". What sense could this "necessity" be? Obviously, this cannot be logical, because
to say P is necessary is to say -P is logical impossible, or that P is true at all possible worlds. It is commonly that case that for p to be necessary, then either
1. p is a posteriori necessary, and
2. p is analytic.

For p to be true for 1 is for p to be some sort of identity. Energy does not seem to be it. Energy is a concept that is posited by physics to explain. It itself is not a subject. For example, it is show that if the laws of nature are time-symmetric in a physical system, then energy is conserved. As you can see, energy is a derived property of a system, and not a thing in itself. So, one maybe able to identify possible kinds of systems with the property of energy regulating it in all possible worlds, but it is not necessary for it seems just as likely to imagine other possible worlds with different systems given by say something close to the notion of energy in that world, but not exactly the same.

For p to be true from 2 is for p to be true in "virtue of meaning". It is hard to see how the concept of energy must be true just by understanding the meaning. It seems we need to do experiements to figure out the meaning, but that would make it number 1. If meaning of energy is extension, then it would only be true to all worlds in which the physics are some what similar to our own which uses the notion of "energy", but one could easily imagine a possible world of a different kind. So, i conclude it cannot be 2 .

---------- Post added 03-09-2010 at 06:43 AM ----------



It is a mistake to say the universe come from nothing. The nothing of the physicisits are not nothing. You can probable figure this out by some research.

It is true that the reason for why the big bang happen is mysterious, but it is no less mysterious by positing a god to explain the universe. The moral is this: explanation will always come to be end. It depends on preference of where you want to end it.


You are referring to quantum foam the basis for all concrete matter in existence, it existed before the universe emerged in the even we call the big bang
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 01:40 am
@Alan McDougall,
Alan McDougall;138175 wrote:
You are referring to quantum foam the basis for all concrete matter in existence, it existed before the universe emerged in the even we call the big bang



True, but what is more mysterious is why are there any laws at all. Why this quantum foam is described by some particular mathematical model. So, the question really ought to be "why there are laws at all?", and "why there are these particular set of laws?"
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 03:16 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;138181 wrote:
True, but what is more mysterious is why are there any laws at all. Why this quantum foam is described by some particular mathematical model. So, the question really ought to be "why there are laws at all?", and "why there are these particular set of laws?"


Scientists talk of creation but ignore the creator, the best answer to me that you cannot have fundamental laws without a lawmaker, the infinite eternal something can be expressed in one word GOD
0 Replies
 
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 04:42 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;138181 wrote:
True, but what is more mysterious is why are there any laws at all. Why this quantum foam is described by some particular mathematical model. So, the question really ought to be "why there are laws at all?", and "why there are these particular set of laws?"
If a law is a mathematical model, then it can either be derived from a more general law or it can not be generated other than as a match for the probabilities of observables. This means that all basic laws are mathematically random, by definition, so there are no answers to your "why" questions. Those questions are illegitimate and can be abandoned.
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 05:20 am
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;138198 wrote:
If a law is a mathematical model, then it can either be derived from a more general law or it can not be generated other than as a match for the probabilities of observables. This means that all basic laws are mathematically random, by definition, so there are no answers to your "why" questions. Those questions are illegitimate and can be abandoned.


So you are back to infinite regression and infinite regression must end and the end must be beyond human comprehension and that incomprehension is and must be God
0 Replies
 
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 05:41 am
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;138198 wrote:
If a law is a mathematical model, then it can either be derived from a more general law



In which case, that would just makes me want to ask why that law!

Quote:
or it can not be generated other than as a match for the probabilities of observables. This means that all basic laws are mathematically random, by definition.


How exactly can a mathematical law be random? I can think of numbers as being random, but math equations?

I can think of a random function that pops out random numbers, but that cannot be what you want.

The most intuitive way i can think about it is to think of a function over a domain that assign some sort of number to indicate likeliness. That is, a probability density function. If this is the case, then there are at least two problems. Such function in probability are usually defined over either the real, or discrete numbers. Such functions in our case would have to define over infinitely many mathematical structures. Since such function is itself a mathematical structure, then it has to define over itself. In fact, it would give itself a probability of 1. This option is sort of absurd.

Eg:

Take f1, f2..... to be your mathematical functions, and structures.

Take fK to be a function that takes in a mathematical function, and pops out the likeliness that it is actual.

Since fk(fk) =1, then fk(fi)=0 for all i not k.


Conclusion, it makes little sense of define probability values for mathematical structures that they would physical exist, for in the process of doing so, you need to have a probability function that has to apply to itself which always yields a probability of 1.


When you say "match for the probabilities of observables. ". Maybe, what you have in mind is a quantum mechanical wavefunction. This again cannot be what you want for the observables are possible measurements in a experiment, and the probabilities are probability for each observable. This makes me wonder where this QM wavefunction comes from?
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 05:50 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;138209 wrote:
How exactly can a mathematical law be random?
If the laws under discussion are mathematical statements, then they are strings of symbols. There are two possibilities:
1) the relevant string can be generated from a different string, in this case the generating string is the law, the generated string a corollary
2) the relevant string can not be generated from a different string, such a string is random by definition. So, if laws are mathematical statements then they are random and there is no "why" that explains them.
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 06:07 am
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;138210 wrote:
If the laws under discussion are mathematical statements, then they are strings of symbols. There are two possibilities:
1) the relevant string can be generated from a different string, in this case the generating string is the law, the generated string a corollary


I don` t like how you put it, but fine.

Quote:

2) the relevant string can not be generated from a different string, such a string is random by definition.


Did you not contradict yourself? If string x generates string y. Clearly, y is not random, because x generates it! If x is a string, then either there is a string x* that generates x, or that x is an axioms, or just brute fact. Non of the possibility entails that a mathematical law is random.

*************************************

I am sorry, but your string generates string notion don ` t really capture logically independent laws. If a object obey law y, then it obey law x. When i ask why the most fundamental laws are as they are. I am not interested in logically dependent laws. I am interested in the set of all logically possible laws that are completely independent, and why one of the options are picked.

---------- Post added 03-10-2010 at 07:27 AM ----------

Alan McDougall;138205 wrote:
So you are back to infinite regression and infinite regression must end and the end must be beyond human comprehension and that incomprehension is and must be God



Unless you have a principle that asserts itself to be true.

Eg:

Principle P: All laws with property C is true.
By quantification theory, P has property C, thus it follows by P that P is true.


You are going to say this principle is brute fact? If so, then you are wrong for P is not brute, because P has property C.


What you want to ask ought to be "Is C brute?"
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 06:33 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;138211 wrote:
Did you not contradict yourself? If string x generates string y. Clearly, y is not random, because x generates it!
Sure, y is a corollary of x, and x is the law, if laws are mathematical statements.
TuringEquivalent;138211 wrote:
If x is a string, then either there is a string x* that generates x, or that x is an axioms, or just brute fact. Non of the possibility entails that a mathematical law is random.
If there is no algorithm that generates the string, then it's random by definition. Calling it a brute fact is fine, regardless, there is no "why" which explains it unless that explanation is law which subsumes the original.
TuringEquivalent;138211 wrote:
I am interested in the set of all logically possible laws that are completely independent, and why one of the options are picked.
What do you mean by "picked"? Laws of science, are minimal mathematical statements which allow scientists to generate the probabilities of expected observations over transformations of states of interest.
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 07:09 am
@ughaibu,
Quote:
"If there is no algorithm that generates the string, then it's random by definition. Calling it a brute fact is fine, regardless, there is no "why" which explains it unless that explanation is law which subsumes the original."


ok, what i mean by brute facts would be something like axioms, Quantum mechanical postulates, postulates of relativity theory etc.

Now, i understand that you want to call these things "random"?

Quote:

"What do you mean by "picked"? Laws of science, are minimal mathematical statements which allow scientists to generate the probabilities of expected observations over transformations of states of interest."

What i mean is "why do we live in a world give governed by Laws S={X, Y, Z} and, not a world governed by laws F={Y, E, G, L}?"

The elements of S and F are laws, but they are such that neither can "generate" the other.


***************

If you want to imagine laws as being strings. It does not make sense to say "string x generate string y". You need a transition function (Finite-state machine - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) to make this work. We normally think of the transition function as being the law, and the string as being the state of a system in phase space. So, you string-as-law don` t really make coherent sense.

You really have some serious problems. The formalism you use is not coherent. If the laws are strings, and the transformation of strings requires a laws, which in turn in a string, then for string X to generate Y, it needs X*. Since X, and X* are both strings, then it follows that there need to be a string X**..... This process will not end.


The second thing is how you can justify calling say "QM postulates" random. That is kind of crazy.
ughaibu
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 07:31 am
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent;138223 wrote:
"why do we live in a world give governed by Laws S={X, Y, Z} and, not a world governed by laws F={Y, E, G, L}?"
Well, there is no "why". In other words, there is no true statement to answer such a question, if the laws are parsimonious mathematical statements.
TuringEquivalent;138223 wrote:
So, you string-as-law don` t really make coherent sense.
Sure it does, convert all elements of the alphabet and operators to binary strings, then concatenate them.
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 07:51 am
@ughaibu,
ughaibu;138229 wrote:
Well, there is no "why". In other words, there is no true statement to answer such a question, if the laws are parsimonious


No, i don` t see it. It seems perfectly fine to me that there is a world governed by say classical mechanics. In fact, i can easily imagine possible worlds governed by different made up equations that are not true in this world. I can construct an equation with say 52 dimension of space, and 3 dimension of time, and it is a consistent equation. I can use these to define possible worlds. I can imagine worlds being different, because i can imagine the fundamental equations being fundamental different. It does make sense to ask why the fundamental laws of this world is as it is for there is certainly logically possible alternatives. Also, the principle of parsimony is a methodological principle. Not really any grand metaphysical principle.


Quote:

mathematical statements.Sure it does, convert all elements of the alphabet and operators to binary strings, then concatenate them.


How is that solve the problem? Did you even understand what i said? Something is not processing?

The problem in not in translation of laws to string. The problem is that you need to invoke a transition function when you say something like "string x generates string Y", but this transition function itself is a string. A regress has started. For any string to generate another string, it is needs a string, which in turn in needs another string. It is absurd, and crazy.
0 Replies
 
Pyrrho
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 11:30 am
@Reconstructo,
Pyrrho;120324 wrote:
Indeed.

For those impressed with there being something:

[INDENT]If there were nothing, why would there be nothing rather than something?[/INDENT]


Reconstructo;133922 wrote:
...
Nice try, P! If there were nothing, no one could ask that.


That is beside the point. Imagine that there was nothing in the universe. If there were nothing, why would there be nothing rather than something? Of course, if there were nothing, we would not be typing messages on the internet, but that is irrelevant to the issue. It is very much like the question: If there were something, why would there be something rather than nothing? Which, since there evidently is something, is reduced to: Why is there something and not nothing?

The question is just silly. There is something now because of the preceding state of the universe, and this is so for any point in time we wish to examine. (Nor does it matter if time is relative to one's point of view; from every point of view, the reason why there is something at any point in time is because of the preceding state of the universe.) There is nothing more to it than that. As a cause precedes the effect, it is an absurdity to look for a cause of a chain of events that goes back for eternity.

Hume said it quite well:

Quote:
I shall begin with observing, that there is an evident absurdity in pretending to demonstrate a matter of fact, or to prove it by any arguments a priori. Nothing is demonstrable, unless the contrary implies a contradiction. Nothing, that is distinctly conceivable, implies a contradiction. Whatever we conceive as existent, we can also conceive as non-existent. There is no being, therefore, whose non- existence implies a contradiction. Consequently there is no being, whose existence is demonstrable. I propose this argument as entirely decisive, and am willing to rest the whole controversy upon it.

It is pretended that the Deity is a necessarily existent being; and this necessity of his existence is attempted to be explained by asserting, that if we knew his whole essence or nature, we should perceive it to be as impossible for him not to exist, as for twice two not to be four. But it is evident that this can never happen, while our faculties remain the same as at present. It will still be possible for us, at any time, to conceive the non-existence of what we formerly conceived to exist; nor can the mind ever lie under a necessity of supposing any object to remain always in being; in the same manner as we lie under a necessity of always conceiving twice two to be four. The words, therefore, necessary existence, have no meaning; or, which is the same thing, none that is consistent.

[190]

But further, why may not the material universe be the necessarily existent being, according to this pretended explication of necessity? We dare not affirm that we know all the qualities of matter; and for aught we can determine, it may contain some qualities, which, were they known, would make its non- existence appear as great a contradiction as that twice two is five. I find only one argument employed to prove, that the material world is not the necessarily existent Being: and this argument is derived from the contingency both of the matter and the form of the world. "Any particle of matter," it is said, 7 "may be conceived to be annihilated; and any form may be conceived to be altered. Such an annihilation or alteration, therefore, is not impossible." But it seems a great partiality not to perceive, that the same argument extends equally to the Deity, so far as we have any conception of him; and that the mind can at least imagine him to be non-existent, or his attributes to be altered. It must be some unknown, inconceivable qualities, which can make his non-existence appear impossible, or his attributes unalterable: and no reason can be assigned, why these qualities may not belong to matter. As they are altogether unknown and inconceivable, they can never be proved incompatible with it.
Add to this, that in tracing an eternal succession of objects, it seems absurd to enquire for a general cause or first author. How can any thing, that exists from eternity, have a cause, since that relation implies a priority in time, and a beginning of existence?

In such a chain, too, or succession of objects, each part is caused by that which preceded it, and causes that which succeeds it. Where then is the difficulty? But the WHOLE, you say, wants a cause. I answer, that the uniting of these parts into a whole, like the uniting of several distinct countries into one kingdom, or several distinct members into one body, is performed merely by an arbitrary act of the mind, and has no influence on the nature of things. Did I shew you the particular causes of each individual in a collection of twenty particles of matter, I should think it very unreasonable, should you afterwards ask me, what was the cause of the whole twenty. This is sufficiently explained in explaining the cause of the parts.

Hume's Dialogues
Night Ripper
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 11:42 am
@Alan McDougall,
Alan McDougall;119824 wrote:
Why is there something instead of nothing?


The question doesn't make sense. When you ask "why x", you're asking for a reason. However, a reason is something. Therefore a reason can't explain why there is something instead of nothing. If there were nothing there wouldn't even be reasons, so there could never be a reason why there is something.
GoshisDead
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 11:50 am
@Night Ripper,
how do we know we aren't nothing?
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 02:06 pm
@GoshisDead,
GoshisDead;138324 wrote:
how do we know we aren't nothing?



This is easy to refute. If you think you are something, then there is at least one thing that is something, thus, nothing is impossible.

---------- Post added 03-10-2010 at 03:10 PM ----------

Night Ripper;138322 wrote:
The question doesn't make sense. When you ask "why x", you're asking for a reason. However, a reason is something. Therefore a reason can't explain why there is something instead of nothing. If there were nothing there wouldn't even be reasons, so there could never be a reason why there is something.


Not necessary. A lot of physicists are quite fond of saying that the operative laws are responsible for the big bang, and the origin of matter. If this is so, then the question to "why this universe" maybe be responsed by " because there is some principle, or law that made it happen".
GoshisDead
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 02:17 pm
@TuringEquivalent,
Was it really that easy to refute? What is thought but the ephemeral nothing? If you are nothing isn't also your thought?
0 Replies
 
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 02:49 pm
@Pyrrho,
Pyrrho;138319 wrote:
That is beside the point. Imagine that there was nothing in the universe. If there were nothing, why would there be nothing rather than something? Of course, if there were nothing, we would not be typing messages on the internet, but that is irrelevant to the issue. It is very much like the question: If there were something, why would there be something rather than nothing? Which, since there evidently is something, is reduced to: Why is there something and not nothing?

The question is just silly. There is something now because of the preceding state of the universe, and this is so for any point in time we wish to examine. (Nor does it matter if time is relative to one's point of view; from every point of view, the reason why there is something at any point in time is because of the preceding state of the universe.) There is nothing more to it than that. As a cause precedes the effect, it is an absurdity to look for a cause of a chain of events that goes back for eternity.

Hume said it quite well:


Hume's Dialogues


Why is there something rather than nothing can be address by noting that nothing is impossible because we are something, and something do not come from nothing, so to ask why "something rather than nothing" is wrong for there is no alternative of being nothing. A way to save the question is to ask why this something rather than not some other something has physical existence. This would according to you also be wrong to ask for if we are living in that something else, then to ask why that something else, and not this is to suppose there is any alternative to that something else. Do you see the problem? When ask why there is something rather than nothing, you reply by saying there is no alternative to something! This is in fact a assumption, and this seems to be a false assumption at that for i can imagine a world that is something different from what it is now, thus, this intuition refute that there is no alternative of "this something". This is not entirely correct for this something is a general term, for it applies to not just to the way the world is, but it also applies to all the possible ways things could be. So, to ask why there is something rather than nothing is the same as asking why all the possible ways there could be something( and that one possible way obtained ) and not nothing. You can avoid this by nothing that nothing can be a possible way things could be, namely, a world with no elements, and laws.

So, if nothing is just another possible ways things things could be out of all the possible ways things could be where one of this possible actually exist, then it seems to be meaningful to ask why there is this particular possible way things could be( namely, the way this world is), and not some alternative possible ways, but i could also ask why not a possible way for nothing for the world to be.


That is beside the point. Imagine that there was nothing in the universe. If there were nothing, why would there be nothing rather than something? Of course, if there were nothing, we would not be typing messages on the internet, but that is irrelevant to the issue. It is very much like the question: If there were something, why would there be something rather than nothing? Which, since there evidently is something, is reduced to: Why is there something and not nothing?

Quote:
The question is just silly. There is something now because of the preceding state of the universe, and this is so for any point in time we wish to examine. (Nor does it matter if time is relative to one's point of view; from every point of view, the reason why there is something at any point in time is because of the preceding state of the universe.) There is nothing more to it than that. As a cause precedes the effect, it is an absurdity to look for a cause of a chain of events that goes back for eternity.

Hume said it quite well:


Suppose the current state of the universe is Y, so by your view, there is a preceding state X such that X transform into Y, by some sort of a law L.

X -----L------->Y

If L is deterministic, then you have an infinite series.

....-->C-->D--->E ....---->Y

I can ask why this series is as it is, and not nothing.

If L is non-deterministic,then there is a law L with property L: Q-->P(Q) where P( Q) denote the power set of Q, and Q is the set of states, or state space.

E.g For L( q) ---->{ g, r ,s ..} where g, q , r , s are states.

I can ask why the law is as it is. Why the state space is as it is. Why the law is non-deterministic etc. It is easy to imagine there is no state space, laws for the transformation from one state to the next. It is easy to imagine why there need to be something at all.





---------- Post added 03-10-2010 at 03:52 PM ----------

[/COLOR]
GoshisDead;138364 wrote:
Was it really that easy to refute? What is thought but the ephemeral nothing? If you are nothing isn't also your thought?


It is the reverse. You would not say your thoughts are nothing. If so, then you are something, namely, you are the one with those thoughts. Thus, you are something. Thus, there is at least one something.
0 Replies
 
awareness
 
  1  
Reply Wed 10 Mar, 2010 03:45 pm
@Alan McDougall,
This is the conundrum issue.

If God is perfect, why would it create. To create means you are lacking and thus are no longer perfect.

This is the ultimate circular problem.
 

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