0
   

iq test

 
 
aidan
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 04:50 pm
@Brandon9000,
Quote:
Because no two objects you observe in the real world will ever be the same length, if you are willing to measure them to any arbitrary degree of precision.

Where is this stated, postulated, theorized or proven? I must have missed something really important in my education and I'm trying to learn something here. (I'm being totally sincere - you and David seemed to have learned this and I never did. If it's true - I'd like to learn it now- and by learn I mean see proof or data that shows this concept to be true, and have the methodology by which this fact was arrived at explained to me).

Thanks.

markr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 06:40 pm
@Brandon9000,
I agree that my "proof" guarantees equality for only an instant in time, and that the measurement would have to be taken at that instant. However, I also would like to hear the explanation for why two objects can't have the same length if measured with an arbitrarily small precision. Given an object of a certain length, the probability of finding an object of the same (exact) length is zero, but that doesn't mean it's impossible. What is the impossibility (not improbability) proof?
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 06:55 pm
@markr,
After giving this some more thought, I wonder if anything has a constant exact length. After all, electrons are in motion.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:22 pm
@aidan,
aidan wrote:

Quote:
Because no two objects you observe in the real world will ever be the same length, if you are willing to measure them to any arbitrary degree of precision.

Where is this stated, postulated, theorized or proven? I must have missed something really important in my education and I'm trying to learn something here. (I'm being totally sincere - you and David seemed to have learned this and I never did. If it's true - I'd like to learn it now- and by learn I mean see proof or data that shows this concept to be true, and have the methodology by which this fact was arrived at explained to me).

Thanks.



If two people are separately instructed to cut a length of metal to between 5 and 7 feet, and then the two are compared, the two may by random chance be nearly equal, but not exactly equal. The probability is zero. Because, if one is 71.5 inches, and the other is 71.5000000000001 inches, they're not equal. The odds of an exact equality occurring in the real world, which isn't different by the tiniest deviation, are zero. Frankly, you ought to be able to see this.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:27 pm
@markr,
markr wrote:

I agree that my "proof" guarantees equality for only an instant in time, and that the measurement would have to be taken at that instant. However, I also would like to hear the explanation for why two objects can't have the same length if measured with an arbitrarily small precision. Given an object of a certain length, the probability of finding an object of the same (exact) length is zero, but that doesn't mean it's impossible. What is the impossibility (not improbability) proof?

If two processes are fired off by you, both of which make a cut on the real line between zero and one, and the cutting method gets exactly one point with a truly uniform distribution over the interval, then the probability of two cuts getting exactly the same point would be vanishingly small. Now, both processes might choose 1.5 exactly, but what are the odds if the processes are truly random?
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:28 pm
@markr,
markr wrote:

After giving this some more thought, I wonder if anything has a constant exact length. After all, electrons are in motion.

This is true also, although at some point, the quantum uncertainty will come into play.
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:44 pm
@Brandon9000,
Quote:
If two processes are fired off by you, both of which make a cut on the real line between zero and one, and the cutting method gets exactly one point with a truly uniform distribution over the interval, then the probability of two cuts getting exactly the same point would be vanishingly small. Now, both processes might choose 1.5 exactly, but what are the odds if the processes are truly random?


This is a probabilistic argument, not a proof of impossibility. I've already acknowledged that the probability is zero.

The whole variability/uncertainty issue seems to make the question of identical lengths rather moot.
0 Replies
 
aidan
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:48 pm
@Brandon9000,
Frankly - I do see what you're saying, but I don't think this explains or proves as fact that nothing in the real world is or can be- whether by design or randomly-equal in length to anything else.

I don't think it can be proved - because just as there may, or as you postulate, will be the slightest deviation in production - there might also, or by your theory, will be, the slightest deviation in measurement. And the only way you could prove it is to have taken the measurements of every object and compared them. Which I KNOW has never been done and by your own admission could not be done without deviation.

And I wasn't talking about human precision (or lack of) in terms of cutting metal - I was thinking of natural growth processes - because that's what we were talking about. I also wasn't talking about probability. Because you stated the definitive.

So again, I'm wondering if there is a postulate or thereom somewhere which would explain your belief that no two people or any other pair of entities in the real world could be equal in size.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:56 pm
@aidan,
aidan wrote:

Frankly - I do see what you're saying, but I don't think this explains or proves as fact that nothing in the real world is or can be- whether by design or randomly-equal in length to anything else.

I don't think it can be proved - because just as there may, or as you postulate, will be the slightest deviation in production - there might also, or by your theory, will be, the slightest deviation in measurement. And the only way you could prove it is to have taken the measurements of every object and compared them. Which I KNOW has never been done.

And I wasn't talking about human precision (or lack of) in terms of cutting metal - I was thinking of natural growth processes - because that's what we were talking about. I also wasn't talking about probability. Because you stated the definitive.

So again, I'm wondering if there is a postulate or thereom somewhere which would explain your belief that no two people or any other pair of entities in the real world could be equal in size.

Such things are proven in the theory of continuous random variables. Let's say that I ask two people to choose a number from zero to 50 and it must be an integer. Then the odds of the two numbers being equal are 1/(51 x 51). Now, let's say that I allow half numbers as well. Now the odds are 1/(101 x 101). Now let's say that I allow quarters. The odds are then 1/(201 x 201). If I allow all real numbers from zero to 50, the odds are zero.
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 07:59 pm
@Brandon9000,
I think your argument fails to be convincing because probability equal to zero does not imply impossibility.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 08:17 pm
@markr,
markr wrote:

I think your argument fails to be convincing because probability equal to zero does not imply impossibility.

Probably you're failing to consider the fact that the process is hypothesized to have a uniform distribution. I could ask you this question. Two random processes choose a number between zero and one based on a uniform distribution. What are the odds that both processes will choose a number between .499 and .501? How about between .4999 and .5001? Certainly the latter probability must be smaller.

Anyway, I think we can agree that if the length measurement process goes to the limits of quantum uncertainty, the chances of finding two people with the same height in a classroom are essentially zero.
markr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 28 Feb, 2010 08:52 pm
@Brandon9000,
Quote:
Probably you're failing to consider the fact that the process is hypothesized to have a uniform distribution. I could ask you this question. Two random processes choose a number between zero and one based on a uniform distribution. What are the odds that both processes will choose a number between .499 and .501? How about between .4999 and .5001? Certainly the latter probability must be smaller.

I am considering that, and I agree that the probability is zero. However, in this situation (selecting identical points on the real number line), although the probability is zero, it is not impossible. I admit to picking nits, but the probability is zero because the denominator is infinite, not because the numerator is zero. I guess I take issue with characterizing this as "in theory it is possible, but in practice it is impossible." I know that you weren't the one that did that, and I know that the statement was applied to the measurement problem, not the point selection problem.

Quote:
Anyway, I think we can agree that if the length measurement process goes to the limits of quantum uncertainty, the chances of finding two people with the same height in a classroom are essentially zero.

Agreed, and also well before getting to those limits.
0 Replies
 
aidan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 02:48 am
@Brandon9000,
Quote:
Anyway, I think we can agree that if the length measurement process goes to the limits of quantum uncertainty, the chances of finding two people with the same height in a classroom are essentially zero.

I can agree to that too - but I didn't see any mention in the initial question of the condition of 'the length measurement process going to the limits of quantum uncertainty.' You've changed the question.
Brandon9000
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 05:42 am
@aidan,
aidan wrote:

Quote:
Anyway, I think we can agree that if the length measurement process goes to the limits of quantum uncertainty, the chances of finding two people with the same height in a classroom are essentially zero.

I can agree to that too - but I didn't see any mention in the initial question of the condition of 'the length measurement process going to the limits of quantum uncertainty.' You've changed the question.

My remarks apply if the length measurement is as precise as necessary to determine any minute height difference.
aidan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Mar, 2010 12:31 pm
@Brandon9000,
I got it Brandon. And I learned something too. Thank you.
0 Replies
 
beckahjo
 
  1  
Reply Fri 5 Mar, 2010 05:49 pm
@handi,
thw awnser is 11 its as simple as that
0 Replies
 
 

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