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2d Amendment case: DC v. Heller

 
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 08:27 am
parados wrote:
If the only requirement is what is "common at the time" then weapons that once were covered but are no longer common would lose their protection...


That could be true and (although, to my knowledge, it has never been tested in the courts on that basis) may already be in effect.

Quote:
...and new weapons could be banned before they become common so never gain protection.


Again, probbaly true. The Congress could prohibit the manufacture of laser weapons, for example, and prevent them from ever coming into common use. Of course that would require that the members of the Congress be able to look into the future and see what technologies might arise.

Quote:
Congress could lock in the present weapons with legislation.


Within some reservations, I agree. I doubt a limitation on some minor variation of an existing firearm would hold up so attempting to limit things by means of make/model numbers or for example, trying to limit existing technologies would probably fail. But I should also mention here that this decision leaves the "rules" pretty much up in the air. The courts will now have to decide at some point what level of scrutiny to place on restrictions on this right. Depending on where things fall that could be fairly easy for goverments to do or extremely hard.

Quote:
I doubt that was Scalia's intent but it certainly makes it possible to do and goes directly against what you say the founders intent was.


I doubt it was Scalia's intent as well. I suspect he doesn't care just as he doesn't care what the founder's intent was. His philosophy is one of "original meaning" not "original intent".
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 09:15 am
Setanta wrote:
Clearly, in the beginning, at least, not only did neither the framers nor the government envision the militia providing their own arms, it certainly looks as they went to considerable expense to provide arms for the militia.


That "in the beginning" must have ended fairly quickly. The 2nd Congress passed the Militia Act of 1792 which stated:

"That each and every free able-bodied white male citizen of the respective States, resident therein, who is or shall be of age of eighteen years, and under the age of forty-five years (except as is herein after excepted) shall severally and respectively be enrolled in the militia, by the Captain or Commanding Officer of the company, within whose bounds such citizen shall reside, and that within twelve months after the passing of this Act. And it shall at all time hereafter be the duty of every such Captain or Commanding Officer of a company, to enroll every such citizen as aforesaid, and also those who shall, from time to time, arrive at the age of 18 years, or being at the age of 18 years, and under the age of 45 years (except as before excepted) shall come to reside within his bounds; and shall without delay notify such citizen of the said enrollment, by the proper non-commissioned Officer of the company, by whom such notice may be proved. That every citizen, so enrolled and notified, shall, within six months thereafter, provide himself with a good musket or firelock, a sufficient bayonet and belt, two spare flints, and a knapsack, a pouch, with a box therein, to contain not less than twenty four cartridges, suited to the bore of his musket or firelock, each cartridge to contain a proper quantity of power and ball; or with a good rifle, knapsack, shot-pouch, and power-horn, twenty balls suited to the bore of his rifle, and a quarter of a power of power; and shall appear so armed, accoutred and provided, when called out to exercise or into service, except, that when called out on company days to exercise only, he may appear without a knapsack. That the commissioned Officers shall severally be armed with a sword or hanger, and espontoon; and that from and after five years from the passing of this Act, all muskets from arming the militia as is herein required, shall be of bores sufficient for balls of the eighteenth part of a pound; and every citizen so enrolled, and providing himself with the arms, ammunition and accoutrements, required as aforesaid, shall hold the same exempted from all suits, distresses, executions or sales, for debt or for the payment of taxes."

If the founder's intent was for the Congress to provide all of the arms for the milita then why did they turn around and pass a law immediately afterwards doing the exact opposite?
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 10:45 am
You are playing a word game, Fishin'--the operative word, which you have highlighted, is from the verb to provide--not purchase, not own, but provide. It is entirely within the scope of the text of the constitution and of this act and of my argument that each militia member could provide himself the specified arms and equipment by applying at the nearest militia muster location, said arms and equipment having been provided to the several states by the Federal government. The act you cite was passed three years before the model 1795 Springfield musket was developed, and five years before it was distributed. Working from this page of internal links at Wikipedia for "Springfield rifle" (my search criterion was Springfield musket, but this was one of the search results yielded), i find that 70,000 model 1795 muskets were produced (in service 1797 to 1815), 30,000 model 1812 muskets (in service in 1815-16), about 675,000 model 1816 muskets (in service 1816-44), 600,000 model 1822 muskets (in service 1822-circa late 1850s), 30,000 model 1840 muskets, and 272,565 model 1842 muskets. Wikipedia did not have an article on the model 1835 musket, and the article on the model 1855 rifled-musket does not specify how many are produced.

Therefore, exclusive of the 1835 and 1855 models, the United States government produced in excess of 1,600,000 muskets before the American Civil War, which was the first time in American history that the aggregate of all United States forces ever exceeded 100,000 men. So, perhaps you could tell precisely what the United States government did with more than a million and half muskets with a standing army which did not at any time exceed 10,000 men prior to 1845? Does it not suggest itself to you that the arms with which militiamen "provided" themselves in pursuance of the terms of the 1792 militia act were in fact those arms which the Federal government provided to the several states? Or do you have a more plausible explanation you care to offer?
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 10:55 am
The opening of Kentucky's 1814 Public Arms Act reads:

AN ACT authorizing the Governor to provide for the collecting together, and safe keeping of the public Arms (1814)

CHAPTER CLX.

AN ACT authorizing the Governor to provide for the collecting together, and safe keeping of the public Arms.

APPROVED, February 1, 1814.

WHEREAS it is represented to this present General Assembly that, that part of this state's quota of arms and military accoutrements, received from the general government[/u], are scattered and much abused, in consequence of there being no provisions made by this state for the reception and safe keeping of the same: . . .


Although i don't feel inclined to continue to search, i rather suspect that continuing to search would provide more evidence that the arms with which the militiamen were to provide themselves were in fact received by the several states from the "general government."
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 01:18 pm
Setanta wrote:
You are playing a word game, Fishin'--the operative word, which you have highlighted, is from the verb to provide--not purchase, not own, but provide. It is entirely within the scope of the text of the constitution and of this act and of my argument that each militia member could provide himself the specified arms and equipment by applying at the nearest militia muster location, said arms and equipment having been provided to the several states by the Federal government.


Yes, it is within the scope of your argument however it doesn't make much sense as a part of it.

If "provide himself" meant, as you contend, walking down to the local armory and collecting a government provided musket then why would it be necessary for the law to specify the caliber ("bores sufficient for balls of the eighteenth part of a pound") and to state "shall hold the same exempted from all suits, distresses, executions or sales, for debt or for the payment of taxes"?

If the government is providing these weapons then they'd have complete control over the caliber of them and if the weapons are the property of the government as you contend then why would it be necessary to exempt them from the individual's personal liabilities? There is only a need to exempt these arms from "all suits, distresses, etc..," if they belong to the individual. A suit against an individual would never create situation where government property in their possession could be seized as a manner of payment.

If, as you claim, these arms were all being provided for by the government then why did Mr. Parker express concern about the Act during it's debate stating "it must be well known that there are many persons who are so poor that that it is impossible they should comply with the law. He conceived, therefore, that provision should be made for arming such persons at the expense of the United States....". This was countered by Mr. Sherman who stated "There are so few freemen in the United States who are not able to provide themselves with arms and acoutrements, that any provision on the part of the United States is unnecessary and improper."

Is it your position that Parker trying to say that these people were to poor to walk to the local armory to be provided with a weapon?

In fact Mr. Parker entered a motion to change the wording in the Act from "provide himself" with arms to "shall be provided" which was defeated by an overwhelming majority.

Even the justices in the Miller decision recognized that militia members were expected to provide for their own arms:

"The signification attributed to the term Militia appears from the debates in the Convention, the history and legislation of Colonies and States, and the writings of approved commentators. These show plainly enough that the Militia comprised all males physically capable of acting in concert for the common defense. "A body of citizens enrolled for military discipline." And further, that ordinarily, when called for service these men were expected to appear bearing arms supplied by themselves and of the kind in common use at the time."

So yes, your reading is certianly possible. It doesn't however, seem plausible. I'm fairly sure that some militia members were provided arms though their local armories. I see no evidence to indicate that it was done in any significant numbers until much later on.


Quote:
The act you cite was passed three years before the model 1795 Springfield musket was developed, and five years before it was distributed. Working from this page of internal links at Wikipedia for "Springfield rifle" (my search criterion was Springfield musket, but this was one of the search results yielded), i find that 70,000 model 1795 muskets were produced (in service 1797 to 1815), 30,000 model 1812 muskets (in service in 1815-16), about 675,000 model 1816 muskets (in service 1816-44), 600,000 model 1822 muskets (in service 1822-circa late 1850s), 30,000 model 1840 muskets, and 272,565 model 1842 muskets. Wikipedia did not have an article on the model 1835 musket, and the article on the model 1855 rifled-musket does not specify how many are produced.

Therefore, exclusive of the 1835 and 1855 models, the United States government produced in excess of 1,600,000 muskets before the American Civil War, which was the first time in American history that the aggregate of all United States forces ever exceeded 100,000 men. So, perhaps you could tell precisely what the United States government did with more than a million and half muskets with a standing army which did not at any time exceed 10,000 men prior to 1845? Does it not suggest itself to you that the arms with which militiamen "provided" themselves in pursuance of the terms of the 1792 militia act were in fact those arms which the Federal government provided to the several states? Or do you have a more plausible explanation you care to offer?


You list a number of arms and quantities manufactured for each but neglect to list their dispositions. How many of them were lost in building fires? Lost shipments? Sold to foreign governments? Melted down and recast as new weapons? Stored for years in arsenals around the country unused?

The fact that a lot of rifles were produces isn't proof that they were in fact issued to the militia. Some may have been but the bulk of all historical research backs the idea that those who were militia members were expected to provide their own weapons at their own expense.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 01:19 pm
fishin wrote:
I still think you are reading it wrong and I don't see how my reading of his words creates any issues with his being an originalist. It is the right to own firearms that carries the originalist meaning. You are trying to extraoplate that into the actual type of firearms themselves which the Contitution is entirely silent on. Scalia doesn't have to explain how his interpretation fits with an originalist take because the Constitution itself is silent as to the type of firearms.

Well, Scalia certainly thinks that Miller was talking about the second amendment's protection of a certain type of firearm:
    It is entirely clear that the Court's basis for saying that the Second Amendment did not apply was [i]not[/i] that the defendants were "bear[ing] arms" not "for . . . military purposes" but for "nonmilitary use," [i]post[/i], at 2. Rather, it was that the [i]type of weapon at issue[/i] was not eligible for Second Amendment protection...
Regardless, for the reasons that I previously set forth, I think my interpretation makes a whole lot more sense than yours. I have not, however, seen any commentators talk about this aspect of Heller.

fishin wrote:
The right that is enumerated within the Constitution is maintained regardless of what firearms are "in common use" are contemporary to the time.

Aren't you contradicting yourself here?
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 01:46 pm
joefromchicago wrote:
fishin wrote:
I still think you are reading it wrong and I don't see how my reading of his words creates any issues with his being an originalist. It is the right to own firearms that carries the originalist meaning. You are trying to extraoplate that into the actual type of firearms themselves which the Contitution is entirely silent on. Scalia doesn't have to explain how his interpretation fits with an originalist take because the Constitution itself is silent as to the type of firearms.

Well, Scalia certainly thinks that Miller was talking about the second amendment's protection of a certain type of firearm:
    It is entirely clear that the Court's basis for saying that the Second Amendment did not apply was [i]not[/i] that the defendants were "bear[ing] arms" not "for . . . military purposes" but for "nonmilitary use," [i]post[/i], at 2. Rather, it was that the [i]type of weapon at issue[/i] was not eligible for Second Amendment protection...


Indeed he does. Miller however, isn't the Constitution. But the section you are quoting from there was his ripping apart of Justice Stevens' opinion as well as where he attacks the lack of information the looked at while deciding Miller. Two paragraphs later Scalia basically agrees that Miller set that standard and he didn't strike it down but it isn't all that clear that he agrees with it either.

Quote:
Regardless, for the reasons that I previously set forth, I think my interpretation makes a whole lot more sense than yours. I have not, however, seen any commentators talk about this aspect of Heller.

Fair enough, it's an honest disagreement.

fishin wrote:
The right that is enumerated within the Constitution is maintained regardless of what firearms are "in common use" are contemporary to the time.

Aren't you contradicting yourself here?


I don't think so... I do have an extra "are" in there that should have been edited out but the point remains. The right is a right to own/posses firearms. Someone who lived in 1810 would have the right to own firearms "in common use" in 1810. Someone who lived in 1890 would have the right to own firearms "in common use" in the 1890s and someone today would have the right to own firearms "in common use" today. An Originalist reading of the right doesn't need to maintain that the right is dependent on the firearm types in use at the time the law/amendment was passed.
0 Replies
 
rosborne979
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 03:20 pm
bookmark
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 03:24 pm
fishin wrote:
Indeed he does. Miller however, isn't the Constitution. But the section you are quoting from there was his ripping apart of Justice Stevens' opinion as well as where he attacks the lack of information the looked at while deciding Miller. Two paragraphs later Scalia basically agrees that Miller set that standard and he didn't strike it down but it isn't all that clear that he agrees with it either

Well, Scalia agrees with his version of Miller.

fishin wrote:
I don't think so... I do have an extra "are" in there that should have been edited out but the point remains. The right is a right to own/posses firearms. Someone who lived in 1810 would have the right to own firearms "in common use" in 1810. Someone who lived in 1890 would have the right to own firearms "in common use" in the 1890s and someone today would have the right to own firearms "in common use" today. An Originalist reading of the right doesn't need to maintain that the right is dependent on the firearm types in use at the time the law/amendment was passed.

No, I'm pretty sure that an originalist reading of the amendment does need to maintain that the right is dependent on the firearm types in use at the time the amendment was passed, and I'm pretty sure that's exactly what Scalia does in his Heller opinion. As he states (p. 63): "Constitutional rights are enshrined with the scope they were understood to have when the people adopted them, whether or not future legislatures or (yes) even future judges think that scope too broad."
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 04:18 pm
Setanta wrote:
You are playing a word game, Fishin'--the operative word, which you have highlighted, is from the verb to provide--not purchase, not own, but provide. It is entirely within the scope of the text of the constitution and of this act and of my argument that each militia member could provide himself the specified arms and equipment by applying at the nearest militia muster location, said arms and equipment having been provided to the several states by the Federal government. The act you cite was passed three years before the model 1795 Springfield musket was developed, and five years before it was distributed. Working from this page of internal links at Wikipedia for "Springfield rifle" (my search criterion was Springfield musket, but this was one of the search results yielded), i find that 70,000 model 1795 muskets were produced (in service 1797 to 1815), 30,000 model 1812 muskets (in service in 1815-16), about 675,000 model 1816 muskets (in service 1816-44), 600,000 model 1822 muskets (in service 1822-circa late 1850s), 30,000 model 1840 muskets, and 272,565 model 1842 muskets. Wikipedia did not have an article on the model 1835 musket, and the article on the model 1855 rifled-musket does not specify how many are produced.

Therefore, exclusive of the 1835 and 1855 models, the United States government produced in excess of 1,600,000 muskets before the American Civil War, which was the first time in American history that the aggregate of all United States forces ever exceeded 100,000 men. So, perhaps you could tell precisely what the United States government did with more than a million and half muskets with a standing army which did not at any time exceed 10,000 men prior to 1845? Does it not suggest itself to you that the arms with which militiamen "provided" themselves in pursuance of the terms of the 1792 militia act were in fact those arms which the Federal government provided to the several states? Or do you have a more plausible explanation you care to offer?


Just as a quick follow-up to my earlier comments on this post - I looked at your linked page and found an interesting tidbit. If you go back and take a look at it you'll find a link near the start of the article for the Springfield Armory. If you follow that link you'll find that it mentions that in 1843 Henry Wadsworth Longfellow visited the Armory and that at that time there were 1,000,000 rifles being stored there.

"In 1843, Henry Wadsworth Longfellow visited the Armory and wrote his poem "The Arsenal at Springfield." The anti-war poem described the rows of finished guns, by that point 1,000,000 stockpiled there, stored vertically in open racks; "Like a huge organ, rise the burnished arms."

1,000,000 out of your total of 1,600,000 is a fairly sizeable chunk. That also doesn't include whatever rifles were being stored at the Harper's Ferry Arsenal or the number made after 1843 and prior to the start of the Civil War (or those that were lost in fires at the Springfield Armory in the fires there in both 1801 and 1824.) It also doesn't include those in storage in arsenals at Forts across the country nor those carried on ships.

How could the Federal Government have been "providing" these rifles to the various militias for better than 40 years yet they still had these huge stockpiles? That would allow for pretty much zero wear and tear losses over a 40+ year period by both the Federal forces and the militias and no captured rifles by the British in the War of 1812 or the Mexican's in the Mexican-American War. All of those a pretty much implausible scenarios.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 06:44 pm
Well, Fishin', you might also have noted that all the muskets up to and including the 1822 model were based on the .69 caliber model 1777 Charleville musket, of which the French provided us more than 100,000. You might also note that the pre-1860 total did not include the model 1835 musket and the model 1855 rifled-musket for which i could find no figures. Therefore, it were completely reasonable to infer that there had been many more than 2,000,000 small arms in the possession of the Federal government in the period specified. I stuck with the roughly 1.6 million figure (what i provided actually totals to more than 1.7 million) because i had documented it. But i would ask you just how many muskets do you think were required to meet the demands of the several states? Are you perhaps suggesting that the Kentucky case was an anomaly, and that the Federal government provided arms and accoutrements to the state of Kentucky, but to no other state?

None of this, however, invalidates my objection to what Brandon posted. Nowhere in the constitution, neither in Article One, Section Eight, nor in the Second Amendment, is there an explicit statement nor an implied statement to the effect that members of the militia are required to arm themselves.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 07:02 pm
I checked a source to be certain of this before posting. When Major General Kenton Harper of the Virginia militia took possession of the arsenal at Harper's Ferry in 1861, the Lieutenant commanding and his small detachment had fired the buildings. Harper reported to Governor Letcher (source in the O.R.) that the machinery had been saved, but that 20,000 stand of small arms were lost to the flames--that no small arms were saved.

The only other large repository of small arms in the United States at the time was the St. Louis Arsenal. John B. Floyd, who would later serve as a general officer in the Confederate States, was the secretary of war during the Buchanan administration, and was accused by northerners of shipping arms and ammunition to southern states in 1860, in what was described as "their quota" (further evidence that the states expected to receive arms and accoutrements from the Federal government) with a view to arming them in the event of war. However, the St. Louis Arsenal had only been an active manufacturing center during the Mexican war, when it employed hundreds of workers, and produced about 16,000 stand of small arms. After the war, it was reduced to its normal statutory work force of 30 men, who manufactured no more small arms, and simply refitted and refurbished existing weapons.

I had thought about the arms in the hands of the United States Navy and the Marines, and had thought i ought to come back and acknowledge that, but got to doing other things.

Add the 20,000 in Virginia, and the 16,000 in Missouri to the alleged one million stored at Springfield, Massachusetts, and you still have not accounted for, at a conservative estimate, more than a half million stand of muskets, and at a reasonable estimate, more than a million. Your reference to Longfellow was to a visit in 1843. Given the numbers already provided, the 1,000,000 stand of small arms to which he referred could easily have been muskets returned when replaced by later models, and it ignores that between 1841 and 1844, hundreds of thousands of the 1822 models were refitted with percussion cap locks. How are we to know if Longfellow wasn't seeing row upon row of muskets which had been refitted, and not yet returned to the several states, or row upon row of flintlock muskets awaiting refitting with percussion cap locks? I don't consider your Longfellow source to be very convincing.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 07:46 pm
Setanta wrote:
Well, Fishin', you might also have noted that all the muskets up to and including the 1822 model were based on the .69 caliber model 1777 Charleville musket, of which the French provided us more than 100,000. You might also note that the pre-1860 total did not include the model 1835 musket and the model 1855 rifled-musket for which i could find no figures. Therefore, it were completely reasonable to infer that there had been many more than 2,000,000 small arms in the possession of the Federal government in the period specified. I stuck with the roughly 1.6 million figure (what i provided actually totals to more than 1.7 million) because i had documented it. But i would ask you just how many muskets do you think were required to meet the demands of the several states?


Apparently more than you've managed to count

Quote:
Are you perhaps suggesting that the Kentucky case was an anomaly, and that the Federal government provided arms and accoutrements to the state of Kentucky, but to no other state?


Nope! But your Kentucky Public Arms Act doesn't state what arms were being collected nor their quantities either. Should anyone be surprised that the states were getting at least some arms from the Federal Government in 1814? I'd hardly think so. You know full well it was in the middle of the War of 1812. Apparently Kentucky's "quota of arms" was fairly small since none of their 2,300+ militiamen that arrived for the Battle of New Orleans had any with them.

During the course of the war some 460,000 men served in one capacity or another - the overwhelming majority (some 360,000 of them) for less then 6 months. Should anyone be surprised that state's were scrambling to secure what arms they had? With that many men coming and going I'd guess that keeping track of who had what was a lost cause

Quote:
None of this, however, invalidates my objection to what Brandon posted. Nowhere in the constitution, neither in Article One, Section Eight, nor in the Second Amendment, is there an explicit statement nor an implied statement to the effect that members of the militia are required to arm themselves.


I'd agree with that There isn't anything stated in the Constitution that says that they weren't either. The Militia Act I quoted earlier however, is another story.
0 Replies
 
fishin
 
  1  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 08:02 pm
Setanta wrote:
Your reference to Longfellow was to a visit in 1843. Given the numbers already provided, the 1,000,000 stand of small arms to which he referred could easily have been muskets returned when replaced by later models, and it ignores that between 1841 and 1844, hundreds of thousands of the 1822 models were refitted with percussion cap locks. How are we to know if Longfellow wasn't seeing row upon row of muskets which had been refitted, and not yet returned to the several states, or row upon row of flintlock muskets awaiting refitting with percussion cap locks? I don't consider your Longfellow source to be very convincing.


Yes, Longfellow's visit was in 1843. And the Springfield Armory had just completed building another arsenal building capable of housing another 300,000 rifles. I can find no records indicating what the number of rifles was there in 1860 or so... I do find it hard to believe that they'd build another building to house that number of arms just for temporary storage however.

And yes, the rifles he saw could have been 1822's being refitted. If there had been a million 1822s produced (which there wasn't - according to your own numbers there were only 600,000 ever made). But I don't see how that matters. If there were a million rifles sitting in the arsenal, then they weren't in the possession of the states for them to hand out to the militia were they? They couldn't have been in two places at the same time...

There is little doubt that the states had armories and that they got at least some rifles from the federal government. I still however don't see how that disproves that the Militia Act required militia members to provide their own however. The discussions that took place in the Senate about the cost to the individual members of the milita simply wouldn't have taken place if the government was providing all of their arms/equipment.
0 Replies
 
Brandon9000
 
  0  
Reply Fri 27 Jun, 2008 09:38 pm
Setanta wrote:
Brandon9000 wrote:
Also, in my opinion, the 2nd clause of the amendment is crystal clear when it says that the right of the people to own and bear arms may not be limited. It seems to me that even if the amendment were phrased:

Owning guns is awful and so the right of the people to own and bear arms shall not be infringed

it would be an odd choice of conflicting ideas, but the statement that the government can't infringe on the peoples' the right to own guns would still be clear. I feel that the first phrase is there to give an example. Also, to state that a militia may arm itself would be an unnecessary redundancy, since the mere existence of a militia implies that it exists to provide armed protection.

I strongly suspect that the Founders thought that the existence of the inherent right to personal liberty implied an inherent right to self defense, including the right, should the occasion present itself, to defend oneself agains a tryannical government.


This is a pretty typical and rather tired conservative argument peculiar to those who obsess over the idea that no one should be able to restrict gun ownership. The first clause of the second amendment does not say that a militia may arm itself. Article One, Section Eight, treating of the powers of Congress reads, in part:

(Congress shall have the power) To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

In United States versus Miller, the Court states that the second amendment can only be interpreted in the context of that portion of the constitution. It appears that this must long have irritated Scalia, who seems to think that the second amendment should only be interpreted in light of his personal political agenda.

The United States government in the first century of its existence produced muskets and rifled muskets in quatities which far exceeded the most extravagant claim one could make for necessarily arming the regular army, which remained until the time of the Mexican War (1845), a very small organization. For example, 70,000 of the Model 1795 Springfield musket were produced between 1795 and 1812 when a new model was adopted. The entire enlistment of the United States army from 1787 to 1845 (beginning of the Mexican War) was not half that number--and at the height of its expansion for the Mexican War, the entire United States Army, including volunteer organizations and militia activated to serve in that war, did not exceed 35,000.

Clearly, in the beginning, at least, not only did neither the framers nor the government envision the militia providing their own arms, it certainly looks as they went to considerable expense to provide arms for the militia.

I consider your arguments without merit.

The idea advanced by others that the intention of the amendment is to guarantee militias the right to own and bear arms is incorrect for several reasons:

1. The existence of a militia inherently implies that it may be armed, so such a guarantee would be redundant.
2. The second clause states that the right of the people to own and carry weapons shall not be limited. When the law states that an activity can't be limited, then prohibiting the activity altogether isn't in compliance.
3. The Bill of Rights is clearly intended to set limits on the powers of the government over individuals.

Remember that the amendment is only one sentence and doesn't contain any of this case law being referred to. Case law is not a guide to what the people who wrote the law intended.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Sat 28 Jun, 2008 02:34 pm
fishin wrote:
There is little doubt that the states had armories and that they got at least some rifles from the federal government. I still however don't see how that disproves that the Militia Act required militia members to provide their own however. The discussions that took place in the Senate about the cost to the individual members of the milita simply wouldn't have taken place if the government was providing all of their arms/equipment.


The bill to which you refer was the 1792 Militia Act. It was revised in 1795, but the first model of musket produced at the Springfield armory was the 1795 model, which did not go into production until after 1795. It is unlikely that there would have been a discussion in the Senate about distributing arms to the several states which had been manufactured at the expense of the Federal government at a time when the Federal government was not manufacturing arms.
0 Replies
 
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Sat 28 Jun, 2008 02:44 pm
Brandon9000 wrote:
The idea advanced by others that the intention of the amendment is to guarantee militias the right to own and bear arms is incorrect for several reasons:

1. The existence of a militia inherently implies that it may be armed, so such a guarantee would be redundant.
2. The second clause states that the right of the people to own and carry weapons shall not be limited. When the law states that an activity can't be limited, then prohibiting the activity altogether isn't in compliance.
3. The Bill of Rights is clearly intended to set limits on the powers of the government over individuals.

Remember that the amendment is only one sentence and doesn't contain any of this case law being referred to. Case law is not a guide to what the people who wrote the law intended.


http://shoutluton.com/attractions/images/strawman.jpg

I have not the least idea of why you quoted me when you post this drivel, because if you're attempting to refute what i've written with this, then you've constructed a strawman. I made no such argument.

However, i do understand why people do advance the argument that the intent of the amendment is to guarantee to all citizens the right to participate in the militia. In Blackstone's Commentaries on the common law, he says both that " . . . that the prevention of popular insurrections and resistance to government by disarming the bulk of the people, is a reason oftener meant than avowed by the makers of the forest and game laws." and that people in England had the right to keep arms "suitable to their condition and degree." In 1803, St. George Tucker (called "the American Blackstone"), wrote: "The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. Amendments to C. U. S. Art. 4, and this without any qualification as to their condition or degree, as is the case in the British government." Tucker was read by almost every lawyer in the United States at the time, whether or not they agreed with his interpretations, and many of the authors of the second amendment (who were not necessarily the framers of the constitution, but who were the members of the First Congress--and may or may not have attended the constitutional convention) were available to comment on Tucker's remarks. Perhaps you can supply with such commentaries from the authors of the second amendment, since you seem so certain of the their intent.
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Jeerleader
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Jul, 2008 11:36 am
joefromchicago wrote:
Despite Scalia's extensive historical research, he seems to have missed something potentially important. Regarding the scope of US v. Miller, he states:
    We therefore read Miller to say only that the Second Amendment does not protect those weapons not typically possessed by law-abiding citizens for lawful purposes, such as short-barreled shotguns. ... [i]Miller[/i] said, as we have explained, that the sorts of weapons protected were those "in common use at the time." 307 U. S., at 179. We think that limitation is fairly supported by the historical tradition of prohibiting the carrying of "dangerous and unusual weapons."
There's just one problem with this analysis: Miller upheld a federal law prohibiting the possession of sawed-off shotguns, yet such weapons (or their equivalents) were "in common use at the time" of the adoption of the second amendment.


But you are completely dismissing that Miller was decided using the solidly individual right reasoning of Aymette at 158. Aymette conveyed the usually employed in civilized warfare, and that constitute the ordinary military equipment criteria for protection and SCOTUS took that reasoning and Aymette's reasoning on why certain weapons don't enjoy protection and decided how to treat Miller's shotgun.

Aymette at 158 states (paragraph breaks added):

    "As the object for which the right to keep and bear arms is secured is of a general and public nature, to be exercised by the people in a body, for their common defence, so the arms the right to keep which is secured are such as are usually employed in civilized warfare, and that constitute the ordinary military equipment. If the citizens have these arms in their hands, they are prepared in the best possible manner to repel any encroachments upon their rights by those in authority. They need not, for such a purpose, the use of those weapons which are usually employed in private broils, and which are efficient only in the hands of the robber and the assassin. These weapons would be useless in war. They could not be employed advantageously in the common defence of the citizens. The right to keep and bear them, is not, there-fore, secured by the constitution.


It is no mystery nor is it remarkable why SCOTUS held what they did in Miller. . . And Scalia didn't upset anything in Heller.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Jul, 2008 02:58 pm
Jeerleader wrote:
But you are completely dismissing that Miller was decided using the solidly individual right reasoning of Aymette at 158. Aymette conveyed the usually employed in civilized warfare, and that constitute the ordinary military equipment criteria for protection and SCOTUS took that reasoning and Aymette's reasoning on why certain weapons don't enjoy protection and decided how to treat Miller's shotgun.

Miller doesn't rely on the reasoning in Aymette. McReynolds only cited Aymette twice: once in a long string citation which is just a compilation of "important" militia cases; and once in the text for the proposition that "it is not within judicial notice that this weapon [i.e. a sawed-off shotgun] is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense." Your selection from Aymette confirms that. There is, in short, nothing in the Miller opinion to suggest that it relied on the reasoning in Aymette.

But welcome to A2K anyway, Jeerleader.
0 Replies
 
Jeerleader
 
  1  
Reply Sun 6 Jul, 2008 07:34 pm
Setanta wrote:
It is entirely within the scope of the text of the constitution and of this act and of my argument that each militia member could provide himself the specified arms and equipment by applying at the nearest militia muster location, said arms and equipment having been provided to the several states by the Federal government.


This issue was debated in Congress and some interesting discussions took place. I recommend; Annals of Congress, House of Representatives, 5th Congress, 2nd Session, June 14, 1798:

View pages 1927 and 1928
View pages 1929 and 1930
View pages 1931 and 1932

I would think that this would be the infancy of the "Arms for Militia" movement (there seems to have been an earlier bill introduced but it apparently did not move) and it seems to be a contentious issue and quite a departure to what was NOP, the citizens just arming themselves.

Congress does not seem to be debating this because they felt they were the only entity constitutionally empowered to arm the militia under either Art I ยง 8 powers or your interpretation of the 2nd . . . They questioned the circumstance of the citizens arming themselves in the context of poverty and distance from arms manufacturers negatively impacting the effectiveness of the militia, if called up, in remote regions of the nation.

It is also clear that no matter which circumstances of disposition was chosen, (making the citizens pay for the gun or just giving them out), the citizen walked away with the gun as if it was his property, taking it home. there was no armory involved.

I would like to read any thoughts you have on the Congressional citation I offered.



joefromchicago wrote:
McReynolds only cited Aymette twice: once in a long string citation which is just a compilation of "important" militia cases; and once in the text for the proposition that "it is not within judicial notice that this weapon [i.e. a sawed-off shotgun] is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense." Your selection from Aymette confirms that. There is, in short, nothing in the Miller opinion to suggest that it relied on the reasoning in Aymette.


I think you are being disingenuous now . . . Isn't that "proposition" you mention Miller's holding?

From where else does the Miller Court draw their reasoning from? Only the government briefed the Court (and in it citing Aymette at 158), no amicus were filed . . .

And I find the Court's inclusion of "common defence" telling; that term is not found in the 2nd, in fact its inclusion was specifically struck from [what would be] the 2nd. It is central in the Aymette exposition though.
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