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Definitions of miracles

 
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Oct, 2006 08:51 am
rockpie wrote:
but to say that a miracle is a violation of physical laws would suggest that in Biblical times when the word miracle was used to describe things like resurrection from death and walking on water the people using the word did know the laws of nature. as i understand it nobody back then could comprehend what the laws of nature were so to say that a miracle violates laws of nature cannot be applicable because miracles occured when natural laws weren't considered. but then i realise that on the same basis that is why they were explained by the actions of God because there was no other explanation right? and the circle continues...

For Hume, "natural laws" were really just human expectations that had proven, over time, to be without exception. Thus, it is a natural law that dead people stay dead, not because some scientists had proven that dead people stay dead, but because all instances of people dying in the past had, without exception, showed that the dead people stayed dead. That fits with what Hume regarded as the "problem of induction," i.e. that no empirical fact can be logically justified. At best, we can say that past evidence provides a guide for what the future will look like, and the more evidence we have of the past, the more confident we can be in our prediction of the future. Thus, all past instances of dead people staying dead, without any exceptions, makes it highly likely that, in the future, dead people will stay dead. And the number of those exceptionless instances in the past would make us extremely dubious of any report of an exception in the future -- so much so that we would rightly regard any exception as being "miraculous."

rockpie wrote:
i suppose, but i did some research on Hume, and he proves his own definition wrong by saying that laws of nature cannot actually be broken so miracles are impossible as laws of nature being broken is only our understanding of them being previously unsound. but what about miracles that don't actually break a law of nature... if they work through the laws of nature like Holland suggests?

Where does Hume say that the laws of nature cannot actually be broken?

rockpie wrote:
Hume hasn't proved that wrong, plus he says that past experience would show us that when people die they stay dead, however in 1960, we could say past experience shows us that man cannot walk on the moon, but they did. just because something hasn't happened before doesn't mean it won't happen. besides if it was an everyday occurance it wouldn't be classed as miraculous.

A man walking on the moon isn't miraculous, any more than a man walking on the surface of Mars wouldn't be miraculous. Since there had been no attempts to walk on the moon prior to 1969, we couldn't say that it was inductively "impossible" to walk on the moon. At most, one could speculate as to its possibility. That's far different from speculating as to the possibility of resurrecting the dead.
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rockpie
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Oct, 2006 09:09 am
but my point is that Jesus was first to walk on water, before that nobody had so it was a miracle. Hume said that past experience shows us that when people walk on water they sink, so if somebody walked we would discount that single occurance as it disagreed with the majority. however, say you boiled some water and 99/100 times it boiled at 100 degrees C and 1/100 it boiled at 105 degrees C, you would accept that water boiled at 100 degrees C, but you couldn't discount the one occurance that disagreed. also quantum physics shows us that electrons can behave randomly now and then therefore our universe is not as predictable as the laws of nature suggests.
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stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Oct, 2006 09:56 am
Thank you for the echo joe.

Quote:
but my point is that Jesus was first to walk on water, before that nobody had so it was a miracle.


Uh...right. Anyway. There is no physical law preventing man from walking on water. I have walked on rainy streets often. I have also walked on frozen water. But according to hume, if he saw someone walk across a lake, he would probably call it a miracle...even if he had seen the Jesus Lizard.

Quote:
also quantum physics shows us that electrons can behave randomly now and then therefore our universe is not as predictable as the laws of nature suggests.


The laws of physics are the laws of nature. Indeed, these laws are not intuitively predictable.
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Oct, 2006 11:13 am
stuh505 wrote:
Thank you for the echo joe.

If I was echoing anybody, it was David Hume. I don't think I read your post before I wrote mine.
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stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Thu 5 Oct, 2006 11:54 am
joefromchicago wrote:
stuh505 wrote:
Thank you for the echo joe.

If I was echoing anybody, it was David Hume. I don't think I read your post before I wrote mine.


I know. But you made the same point.
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rockpie
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Oct, 2006 09:32 am
going back to natural ''laws'' for a second -

the notion of law has its natural home in legal or political contexts. first and foremost, a law is an ordinance issued by a ruler or governing body and is obeyed (or disobeyed) by those to whom it is promulgated. in that case, we might wonder whether it makes good sense to speak of laws which nature obeys. can the natural world in general be thought of as obedient? indeed, the acceptance of natural laws which nature follows does imply a governing body or ruler... God maybe?
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joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Fri 6 Oct, 2006 10:28 am
rockpie wrote:
going back to natural ''laws'' for a second -

the notion of law has its natural home in legal or political contexts. first and foremost, a law is an ordinance issued by a ruler or governing body and is obeyed (or disobeyed) by those to whom it is promulgated. in that case, we might wonder whether it makes good sense to speak of laws which nature obeys. can the natural world in general be thought of as obedient?

You confuse physical laws with other kinds of laws. People don't "obey" natural laws, they merely conform to them.

rockpie wrote:
indeed, the acceptance of natural laws which nature follows does imply a governing body or ruler... God maybe?

No, it doesn't imply that at all.
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Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Oct, 2006 05:34 am
Actually it does imply 'god maybe'. Smile
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stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Oct, 2006 08:55 am
Cyracuz wrote:
Actually it does imply 'god maybe'. Smile


No, it implies that the system is regular and predictable and a result of some lower or static constants which eliminate all evidence for a god existing.
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Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Sat 7 Oct, 2006 10:24 am
I don't buy that. Nothing eliminates the eventuality of God. I'm not saying that I can prove god's existence, but nor can I disprove it.

So it's as I said, "god maybe". It doesn't say a thing really. Meant as more of a joke... :wink:
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rockpie
 
  1  
Reply Mon 9 Oct, 2006 04:25 am
ok, so may i ask if somebody can give a rational, scientific explanation of the feeding of 5 thousand people, witnessed by many and recorded in the Bible? yes i know your going to say it never happened, but just imagine it did, just for this one time ok.
0 Replies
 
Phoenix32890
 
  1  
Reply Mon 9 Oct, 2006 05:18 am
rockpie wrote:
ok, so may i ask if somebody can give a rational, scientific explanation of the feeding of 5 thousand people, witnessed by many and recorded in the Bible? yes i know your going to say it never happened, but just imagine it did, just for this one time ok.


Rockpie- There IS no scientific explanation, nor is there any reason to believe that it was anything more than a myth.

If you want people to "imagine" that it did, then you can ask people to imagine anything. But that does not mean that it is the truth.

Let's take another example, Methuseleh, which is mentioned in both the old and new testament. It is said that he lived over 900 years. Knowing what you know about longevity in people, do you have any doubt that the story of Methuseleh is nothing more than a fanciful myth? Is is possible that he was an elderly man, older than a lot of people in his area. So the fanciful storytellers created a story that he lived over 900 years.

Is it possible that Jesus fed "lot" of people, and the storytellers of the time came up with a figure of 5,000?

Much of what you read in the bible is parable, metaphor, and good old wishful thinking. For those people starting a new religion, having Jesus feed a couple of dozen people would be no big deal. But, if you could convince the populace that he fed 5,000 people, THAT would be a feat, and would add to the credibility of the religion.

Think of the tall tales that are told to the people by politicians today. Nothing much has changed, although people now are more sophisticated, and would not believe some of the wilder yarns that were fed to ancient peoples. But there really is not much difference.
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rockpie
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 02:57 am
what is to suggest that the early people didn't live far longer than we do? the average age of death is getting lower every decade, it could be a sign as to Jesus' return for all we know. yes it might be an exaggeration, but people back then were probably more spiritually healthy and physically fit than we are today, plus there was no smoking or drug abuse etc.
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Letty
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 03:33 am
rockpie, I have heard it suggested that the "loaves and the fishes" miracle occurred because when the multitude witnessed one small group sharing food, the others begin to share. It is rather like the old story of stone soup.
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Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 05:48 am
rockpie wrote:
ok, so may i ask if somebody can give a rational, scientific explanation of the feeding of 5 thousand people, witnessed by many and recorded in the Bible? yes i know your going to say it never happened, but just imagine it did, just for this one time ok.


An explanation may be that the tale has become exaggerated and twisted through thousands of years of retelling.

As for recorded in the bible.. The bible can hardly be considered an accurate historical source. There are way too many biases and agendas in the compiling of it.

Alternate sources that tell of the life of Jesus do not have him running around preforming miracles. According to those, Jesus was a great king, and he had a wife and children. What's true I do not know, but I know what sounds likely.
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Phoenix32890
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 06:01 am
rockpie wrote:
what is to suggest that the early people didn't live far longer than we do? the average age of death is getting lower every decade, it could be a sign as to Jesus' return for all we know. yes it might be an exaggeration, but people back then were probably more spiritually healthy and physically fit than we are today, plus there was no smoking or drug abuse etc.


There was also only primitive surgery, and no antibiotics. There were far more neo-natal deaths in primitive societies, due in part to the lack of knowledge of sanitation. In the early part of the 20th century, which was not that long ago in terms of history, millions of people died of influenza, a disease which is now contained by vaccines.

People are "programmed" biologically to live only so long. Obviously, although there are statistical variations, there are very few people who live past 110. If you look at reports of world wide statistics, you will see that people in developed countries live far longer that those in more primitive countries.

Where did you get the idea that the average age of death was getting lower? From the statistics that I have read, the age of death is INCREASING, not decreasing.

http://www.census.gov/prod/1/pop/p23-190/p23190-g.pdf

Check out the US census, and you will see that people are living longer, not shorter lives.

Take a look at this chart. You will see that it is the less developed countries that have the shorter life expectancies.


http://geography.about.com/library/weekly/aa042000b.htm
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Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 06:06 am
Phoenix

In the bible God reduces the lifespan of humans to 120 years after they have displeased him in some manner. Moses, for instance, was over nine hundred years old some claim. I don't believe a word of it literally, but some do, and that's where the notion comes from that we live shorter lives than our ancestors.
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Phoenix32890
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 06:20 am
Cyracuz- I would suspect that some of the confusion occurred because the ancients were not as exacting in defining time as modern people do.
0 Replies
 
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 07:39 am
rockpie,

We are all happy that you seemed to have some personal experience of what some might call "a miracle". The problem, as Phoenix has described, is that a satisfactory "explanation" for you is simply "not yet explainable" to the majority...indeed to evoke "divine intervention" in particular cases is somewhat disconcerting and insulting to those those multitudes of "pious" sufferers who did not seem "have their prayers answered". Worse still...the tendency to grant "divine status" to those who seem to "work miracles"...like Hitler after his spectacular subjugation of mainland Europe...puts the concept of "miracle" into the class marked "potential pathogen with respect to society".
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Tue 10 Oct, 2006 07:52 am
rockpie wrote:
what is to suggest that the early people didn't live far longer than we do? the average age of death is getting lower every decade, it could be a sign as to Jesus' return for all we know. yes it might be an exaggeration, but people back then were probably more spiritually healthy and physically fit than we are today, plus there was no smoking or drug abuse etc.


it is a well known fact that life expectancy is much higher now. it was once 25-30 and has rapidly increased in a flash along with technology and the new human way of life.
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